Collapse to view only §§ 121.1200-121.1399 - §[Reserved]
- APPENDIX - Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2
- APPENDIX - Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71
- APPENDIX - Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97
- SUBPART A - Subpart A—General
- SUBPART B - Subpart B—Certification Rules for Domestic and Flag Air Carriers [Reserved]
- SUBPART C - Subpart C—Certification Rules for Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators [Reserved]
- SUBPART D - Subpart D—Rules Governing All Certificate Holders Under This Part [Reserved]
- SUBPART E - Subpart E—Approval of Routes: Domestic and Flag Operations
- SUBPART F - Subpart F—Approval of Areas and Routes for Supplemental Operations
- SUBPART G - Subpart G—Manual Requirements
- SUBPART H - Subpart H—Aircraft Requirements
- SUBPART I - Subpart I—Airplane Performance Operating Limitations
- SUBPART J - Subpart J—Special Airworthiness Requirements
- SUBPART K - Subpart K—Instrument and Equipment Requirements
- SUBPART L - Subpart L—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations
- SUBPART M - Subpart M—Airman and Crewmember Requirements
- SUBPART N - Subpart N—Training Program
- SUBPART O - Subpart O—Crewmember Qualifications
- SUBPART P - Subpart P—Aircraft Dispatcher Qualifications and Duty Time
- SUBPART Q - Subpart Q—Flight Time Limitations and Rest Requirements: Domestic Operations
- SUBPART R - Subpart R—Flight Time Limitations: Flag Operations
- SUBPART S - Subpart S—Flight Time Limitations: Supplemental Operations
- SUBPART T - Subpart T—Flight Operations
- SUBPART U - Subpart U—Dispatching and Flight Release Rules
- SUBPART V - Subpart V—Records and Reports
- SUBPART W - Subpart W—Crewmember Certificate: International
- SUBPART X - Subpart X—Emergency Medical Equipment and Training
- SUBPART Y - Subpart Y—Advanced Qualification Program
- SUBPART Z - Subpart Z—Hazardous Materials Training Program
- SUBPART AA - Subpart AA—Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements
- SUBPART BB - Subpart BB [Reserved]
- SUBPART CC - Subpart CC [Reserved]
- §§ 121.1200-121.1399 - §[Reserved]
- SUBPART DD - Subpart DD—Special Federal Aviation Regulations
- SUBPART 0 -
- APPENDIX Appendix A - Appendix A to Part 121—First Aid Kits and Emergency Medical Kits
- APPENDIX Appendix B - Appendix B to Part 121—Airplane Flight Recorder Specification
- APPENDIX Appendix C - Appendix C to Part 121—C-46 Nontransport Category Airplanes
- APPENDIX Appendix D - Appendix D to Part 121—Criteria for Demonstration of Emergency Evacuation Procedures Under § 121.291
- APPENDIX Appendix E - Appendix E to Part 121—Flight Training Requirements
- APPENDIX Appendix F - Appendix F to Part 121—Proficiency Check Requirements
- APPENDIX Appendix G - Appendix G to Part 121—Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation System (INS): Request for Evaluation; Equipment and Equipment Installation; Training Program; Equipment Accuracy and Reliability; Evaluation Program
- APPENDIX Appendix H - Appendix H to Part 121—Advanced Simulation
- APPENDIX - Appendixes I-J to Part 121 [Reserved]
- APPENDIX Appendix K - Appendix K to Part 121—Performance Requirements for Certain Turbopropeller Powered Airplanes
- APPENDIX Appendix L - Appendix L to Part 121—Type Certification Regulations Made Previously Effective
- APPENDIX Appendix M - Appendix M to Part 121—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications
- APPENDIX Appendix N - Appendix N to Part 121 [Reserved]
- APPENDIX Appendix O - Appendix O to Part 121—Hazardous Materials Training Requirements For Certificate Holders
- APPENDIX Appendix P - Appendix P to Part 121—Requirements for ETOPS and Polar Operations
- Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 50-2
- Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 71
- Special Federal Aviation Regulation No. 97
A - Subpart A—General
B - Subpart B—Certification Rules for Domestic and Flag Air Carriers [Reserved]
C - Subpart C—Certification Rules for Supplemental Air Carriers and Commercial Operators [Reserved]
D - Subpart D—Rules Governing All Certificate Holders Under This Part [Reserved]
E - Subpart E—Approval of Routes: Domestic and Flag Operations
F - Subpart F—Approval of Areas and Routes for Supplemental Operations
G - Subpart G—Manual Requirements
H - Subpart H—Aircraft Requirements
I - Subpart I—Airplane Performance Operating Limitations
J - Subpart J—Special Airworthiness Requirements
K - Subpart K—Instrument and Equipment Requirements
L - Subpart L—Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations
M - Subpart M—Airman and Crewmember Requirements
N - Subpart N—Training Program
O - Subpart O—Crewmember Qualifications
P - Subpart P—Aircraft Dispatcher Qualifications and Duty Time
Q - Subpart Q—Flight Time Limitations and Rest Requirements: Domestic Operations
R - Subpart R—Flight Time Limitations: Flag Operations
S - Subpart S—Flight Time Limitations: Supplemental Operations
T - Subpart T—Flight Operations
U - Subpart U—Dispatching and Flight Release Rules
V - Subpart V—Records and Reports
W - Subpart W—Crewmember Certificate: International
X - Subpart X—Emergency Medical Equipment and Training
Y - Subpart Y—Advanced Qualification Program
Z - Subpart Z—Hazardous Materials Training Program
AA - Subpart AA—Continued Airworthiness and Safety Improvements
BB - Subpart BB [Reserved]
CC - Subpart CC [Reserved]
§§ 121.1200-121.1399 - §[Reserved]
DD - Subpart DD—Special Federal Aviation Regulations
0 -
Appendix A - Appendix A to Part 121—First Aid Kits and Emergency Medical Kits
Approved first-aid kits, at least one approved emergency medical kit, and at least one approved automated external defibrillator required under § 121.803 of this part must be readily accessible to the crew, stored securely, and kept free from dust, moisture, and damaging temperatures.
First-aid Kits1. The minimum number of first aid kits required is set forth in the following table:
| No. of passenger seats | No. of first-aid kits | 0-50 | 1 | 51-150 | 2 | 151-250 | 3 | More than 250 | 4 |
|---|
2. Except as provided in paragraph (3), each approved first-aid kit must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities:
| Contents | Quantity | Adhesive bandage compresses, 1-inch | 16 | Antiseptic swabs | 20 | Ammonia inhalants | 10 | Bandage compresses, 4-inch | 8 | Triangular bandage compresses, 40-inch | 5 | Arm splint, noninflatable | 1 | Leg splint, noninflatable | 1 | Roller bandage, 4-inch | 4 | Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll | 2 | Bandage scissors | 1 |
|---|
3. Arm and leg splints which do not fit within a first-aid kit may be stowed in a readily accessible location that is as near as practicable to the kit.
Emergency Medical Kits1. Until April 12, 2004, at least one approved emergency medical kit that must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities:
| Contents | Quantity | Sphygmomanometer | 1 | Stethoscope | 1 | Airways, cropharyngeal (3 sizes) | 3 | Syringes (sizes necessary to administer required drugs) | 4 | Needles (sizes necessary to administer required drugs) | 6 | 50% Dextrose injection, 50cc | 1 | Epinephrine 1:1000, single dose ampule or equivalent) | 2 | Diphenhydramine HC1 injection, single dose ampule or equivalent | 2 | Nitroglycerin tablets | 10 | Basic instructions for use of the drugs in the kit | 1 | protective nonpermeable gloves or equivalent | 1 pair |
|---|
2. As of April 12, 2004, at least one approved emergency medical kit that must contain at least the following appropriately maintained contents in the specified quantities:
| Contents | Quantity | Sphygmonanometer | 1 | Stethoscope | 1 | Airways, oropharyngeal (3 sizes): 1 pediatric, 1 small adult, 1 large adult or equivalent | 3 | Self-inflating manual resuscitation device with 3 masks (1 pediatric, 1 small adult, 1 large adult or equivalent) | 1:3 masks | CPR mask (3 sizes), 1 pediatric, 1 small adult, 1 large adult, or equivalent | 3 | IV Admin Set: Tubing w/ 2 Y connectors | 1 | Alcohol sponges | 2 | Adhesive tape, 1-inch standard roll adhesive | 1 | Tape scissors | 1 pair | Tourniquet | 1 | Saline solution, 500 cc | 1 | Protective nonpermeable gloves or equivalent | 1 pair | Needles (2-18 ga., 2-20 ga., 2-22 ga., or sizes necessary to administer required medications) | 6 | Syringes (1-5 cc, 2-10 cc, or sizes necessary to administer required medications) | 4 | Analgesic, non-narcotic, tablets, 325 mg | 4 | Antihistamine tablets, 25 mg | 4 | Antihistamine injectable, 50 mg, (single dose ampule or equivalent) | 2 | Atropine, 0.5 mg, 5 cc (single dose ampule or equivalent) | 2 | Aspirin tablets, 325 mg | 4 | Bronchodilator, inhaled (metered dose inhaler or equivalent) | 1 | Dextrose, 50%/50 cc injectable, (single dose ampule or equivalent) | 1 | Epinephrine 1:1000, 1 cc, injectable, (single dose ampule or equivalent) | 2 | Epinephrine 1:10,000, 2 cc, injectable, (single dose ampule or equivalent) | 2 | Lidocaine, 5 cc, 20 mg/ml, injectable (single dose ampule or equivalent) | 2 | Nitroglycerin tablets, 0.4 mg | 10 | Basic instructions for use of the drugs in the kit | 1 |
|---|
3. If all of the above-listed items do not fit into one container, more than one container may be used.
Automated External DefibrillatorsAt least one approved automated external defibrillator, legally marketed in the United States in accordance with Food and Drug Administration requirements, that must:
1. Be stored in the passenger cabin.
2. After April 30, 2005:
(a) Have a power source that meets FAA Technical Standard Order requirements for power sources for electronic devices used in aviation as approved by the Administrator; or
(b) Have a power source that was manufactured before July 30, 2004, and been found by the FAA to be equivalent to a power source that meets the Technical Standard Order requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
3. Be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications.
Appendix B - Appendix B to Part 121—Airplane Flight Recorder Specification
| Parameters | Range | Accuracy sensor input to DFDR readout | Sampling interval (per second) | Resolution 4 readout | Time (GMT or Frame Counter) (range 0 to 4095, sampled 1 per frame) | 24 Hrs | ±0.125% Per Hour | 0.25 (1 per 4 seconds) | 1 sec. | Altitude | −1,000 ft to max certificated altitude of aircraft | ±100 to ±700 ft (See Table 1, TSO-C51a) | 1 | 5′ to 35′ 1 | Airspeed | 50 KIAS to V | ±5%, ±3% | 1 | 1 kt. | Heading | 360° | ±2° | 1 | 0.5° | Normal Acceleration (Vertical) | −3g to + 6g | ±1% of max range excluding datum error of ±5% | 8 | 0.01g. | Pitch Attitude | ±75° | ±2° | 1 | 0.5° | Roll Attitude | ±180° | ±2° | 1 | 0.5° | Radio Transmitter Keying | On-Off (Discrete) | ±2° | ±2% | Thrust/Power on Each Engine | Full Range Forward | ±2° | 1 (per engine) | 0.2% 2 | Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection | Full Range or Each Discrete Position | ±3° or as Pilot's Indicator | 0.5 | 0.5% 2 | Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection | Full Range or Each Discrete Position | ±3° or as Pilot's Indicator | 0.5 | 0.5% 2 | Thrust Reverser Position | Stowed, In Transit, and Reverse (Discrete) | 1 (per 4 seconds per engine) | Ground Spoiler Position/Speed Brake Selection | Full Range or Each Discrete Position | ±2% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required | 1 | 0.2% 2. | Marker Beacon Passage | Discrete | 1 | Autopilot Engagement | Discrete | 1 | Longitudinal Acceleration | ±1g | ±1.5% max range excluding datum error of ±5% | 4 | 0.01g. | Pilot Input and/or Surface Position—Primary Controls (Pitch, Roll, Yaw) 3 | Full Range | ±2° Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required | 1 | 0.2% 2. | Lateral Acceleration | ±1g | ±1.5% max range excluding datum error of ±5% | 4 | 0.01g. | Pitch Trim Position | Full Range | ±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required | 1 | 0.3% 2. | Glideslope Deviation | ±400 Microamps | ±3% | 1 | 0.3% 2. | Localizer Deviation | ±400 Microamps | ±3% | 1 | 0.3% 2. | AFCS Mode and Engagement Status | Discrete | 1 | Radio Altitude | −20 ft to 2,500 ft | ±2 Ft or ±3% Whichever is Greater Below 500 Ft and ±5% Above 500 Ft | 1 | 1 ft + 5% 2 above 500′. | Master Warning | Discrete | 1 | Main Gear Squat Switch Status | Discrete | 1 | Angle of Attack (if recorded directly). | As installed | As installed | 2 | 0.3% 2 | Outside Air Temperature or Total Air Temperature. | −50 °C to + 90 °C | ±2 °c | 0.5 | 0.3 °c | Hydraulics, Each System Low Pressure | Discrete | 0.5 | or 0.5% 2 | Groundspeed. | As installed | Most Accurate Systems Installed (IMS Equipped Aircraft Only) | 1 | 0.2% 2 | If additional recording capacity is available, recording of the following parameters is recommended. The parameters are listed in order of significance: | Drift Angle | When available, As installed | As installed | 4 | Wind Speed and Direction | When available, As installed | As installed | 4 | Latitude and Longitude | When available, As installed | As installed | 4 | Brake pressure/Brake pedal position | As installed | As installed | 1 | Additional engine parameters: | EPR | As installed | As installed | 1 (per engine). | N1 | As installed | As installed | 1 (per engine). | N2 | As installed | As installed | 1 (per engine). | EGT | As installed | As installed | 1 (per engine). | Throttle Lever Position | As installed | As installed | 1 (per engine). | Fuel Flow | As installed | As installed | 1 (per engine). | TCAS: | TA | As installed | As installed | 1 | RA | As installed | As installed | 1 | Sensitivity level (as selected by crew) | As installed | As installed | 2 | GPWS (ground proximity warning system) | Discrete | 1 | Landing gear or gear selector position | Discrete | 0.25 (1 per 4 seconds) | DME 1 and 2 Distance | 0-200 NM; | As installed | 0.25 | 1 mi. | Nav 1 and 2 Frequency Selection | Full range | As installed | 0.25 |
|---|
1 When altitude rate is recorded. Altitude rate must have sufficient resolution and sampling to permit the derivation of altitude to 5 feet.
2 Per cent of full range.
3 For airplanes that can demonstrate the capability of deriving either the control input on control movement (one from the other) for all modes of operation and flight regimes, the “or” applies. For airplanes with non-mechanical control systems (fly-by-wire) the “and” applies. In airplanes with split surfaces, suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately.
4 This column applies to aircraft manufactured after October 11, 1991.
Appendix C - Appendix C to Part 121—C-46 Nontransport Category Airplanes
1. Required engines. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the engines specified in subparagraphs (1) or (2) of this section must be installed in C-46 nontransport category airplanes operated at gross weights exceeding 45,000 pounds:
(1) Pratt and Whitney R2800-51-M1 or R2800-75-M1 engines (engines converted from basic model R2800-51 or R2800-75 engines in accordance with FAA approved data) that—
(i) Conform to Engine Specification 5E-8;
(ii) Conform to the applicable portions of the operator's manual;
(iii) Comply with all the applicable airworthiness directives; and
(iv) Are equipped with high capacity oil pump drive gears in accordance with FAA approved data.
(2) Other engines found acceptable by the Flight Standards office having type certification responsibility for the C-46 airplane.
(b) Upon application by an operator conducting cargo operations with nontransport category C-46 airplanes between points within the State of Alaska, the responsible Flight Standards office may authorize the operation of such airplanes, between points within the State of Alaska; without compliance with paragraph (a) of this section if the operator shows that, in its area of operation, installation of the modified engines is not necessary to provide adequate cooling for single-engine operations. Such authorization and any conditions or limitations therefor is made a part of the Operations Specifications of the operator.
2. Minimum acceptable means of complying with the special airworthiness requirements. Unless otherwise authorized under § 121.213, the data set forth in sections 3 through 34 of this appendix, as correlated to the C-46 nontransport category airplane, is the minimum means of compliance with the special airworthiness requirements of §§ 121.215 through 121.281.
3. Susceptibility of material to fire. [Deleted as unnecessary]
4. Cabin interiors. C-46 crew compartments must meet all the requirements of § 121.215, and, as required in § 121.221, the door between the crew compartment and main cabin (cargo) compartment must be flame resistant.
5. Internal doors. Internal doors, including the crew to main cabin door, must meet all the requirements of § 121.217.
6. Ventilation. Standard C-46 crew compartments meet the ventilation requirements of § 121.219 if a means of ventilation for controlling the flow of air is available between the crew compartment and main cabin. The ventilation requirement may be met by use of a door between the crew compartment and main cabin. The door need not have louvers installed; however, if louvers are installed, they must be controllable.
7. Fire precautions. Compliance is required with all the provisions of § 121.221.
(a) In establishing compliance with this section, the C-46 main cabin is considered as a Class A compartment if—
(1) The operator utilizes a standard system of cargo loading and tiedown that allows easy access in flight to all cargo in such compartment, and, such system is included in the appropriate portion of the operator's manual; and
(2) A cargo barrier is installed in the forward end of the main cabin cargo compartment. The barrier must—
(i) Establish the most forward location beyond which cargo cannot be carried;
(ii) Protect the components and systems of the airplane that are essential to its safe operation from cargo damage; and
(iii) Permit easy access, in flight, to cargo in the main cabin cargo compartment.
The barrier may be a cargo net or a network of steel cables or other means acceptable to the Administrator which would provide equivalent protection to that of a cargo net. The barrier need not meet crash load requirements of FAR § 25.561; however, it must be attached to the cargo retention fittings and provide the degree of cargo retention that is required by the operators' standard system of cargo loading and tiedown.(b) C-46 forward and aft baggage compartments must meet, as a minimum, Class B requirements of this section or be placarded in a manner to preclude their use as cargo or baggage compartments.
8. Proof of compliance. The demonstration of compliance required by § 121.223 is not required for C-46 airplanes in which—
(1) The main cabin conforms to Class A cargo compartment requirements of § 121.219; and
(2) Forward and aft baggage compartments conform to Class B requirements of § 121.221, or are placarded to preclude their use as cargo or baggage compartments.
9. Propeller deicing fluid. No change from the requirements of § 121.225. Isopropyl alcohol is a combustible fluid within the meaning of this section.
10. Pressure cross-feed arrangements, location of fuel tanks, and fuel system lines and fittings. C-46 fuel systems which conform to all applicable Curtiss design specifications and which comply with the FAA type certification requirements are in compliance with the provisions of §§ 121.227 through 121.231.
11. Fuel lines and fittings in designated fire zones. No change from the requirements of § 121.233.
12. Fuel valves. Compliance is required with all the provisions of § 121.235. Compliance can be established by showing that the fuel system conforms to all the applicable Curtiss design specifications, the FAA type certification requirements, and, in addition, has explosion-proof fuel booster pump electrical selector switches installed in lieu of the open contact type used originally.
13. Oil lines and fittings in designated fire zones. No change from the requirements of § 121.237.
14. Oil valves. C-46 oil shutoff valves must conform to the requirements of § 121.239. In addition, C-46 airplanes using Hamilton Standard propellers must provide, by use of stand pipes in the engine oil tanks or other approved means, a positive source of oil for feathering each propeller.
15. Oil system drains. The standard C-46 “Y” drains installed in the main oil inlet line for each engine meet the requirements of § 121.241.
16. Engine breather line. The standard C-46 engine breather line installation meets the requirements of § 121.243 if the lower breather lines actually extend to the trailing edge of the oil cooler air exit duct.
17. Firewalls and firewall construction. Compliance is required with all of the provisions of §§ 121.245 and 121.247. The following requirements must be met in showing compliance with these sections:
(a) Engine compartment. The engine firewalls of the C-46 airplane must—
(1) Conform to type design, and all applicable airworthiness directives;
(2) Be constructed of stainless steel or approved equivalent; and
(3) Have fireproof shields over the fairleads used for the engine control cables that pass through each firewall.
(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 airplanes must have a combustion heater fire extinguishing system which complies with AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent.
18. Cowling. Standard C-46 engine cowling (cowling of aluminum construction employing stainless steel exhaust shrouds) which conforms to the type design and cowling configurations which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements of § 121.249.
19. Engine accessory section diaphragm. C-46 engine nacelles which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements of § 121.251. As provided for in that section, a means of equivalent protection which does not require provision of a diaphragm to isolate the engine power section and exhaust system from the engine accessory compartment is the designation of the entire engine compartment forward of and including the firewall as a designated fire zone, and the installation of adequate fire detection and fire extinguishing systems which meet the requirements of § 121.263 and § 121.273, respectively, in such zone.
20. Powerplant fire protection. C-46 engine compartments and combustion heater compartments are considered as designated fire zones within the meaning of § 121.253.
21. Flammable fluids—
(a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which conform to the type design and which comply with all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of § 121.255.
(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 combustion heater compartments which conform to type design and which meet all the requirements of AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of § 121.255.
22. Shutoff means—
(a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which comply with AD-62-10-2 or FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of § 121.257 applicable to engine compartments, if, in addition, a means satisfactory to the Administrator is provided to shut off the flow of hydraulic fluid to the cowl flap cylinder in each engine nacelle. The shutoff means must be located aft of the engine firewall. The operator's manual must include, in the emergency portion, adequate instructions for proper operation of the additional shutoff means to assure correct sequential positioning of engine cowl flaps under emergency conditions. In accordance with § 121.315, this positioning must also be incorporated in the emergency section of the pilot's checklist.
(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 heater compartments which comply with paragraph (5) of AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent meet the requirements of § 121.257 applicable to heater compartments if, in addition, a shutoff valve located above the main cabin floor level is installed in the alcohol supply line or lines between the alcohol supply tank and those alcohol pumps located under the main cabin floor. If all of the alcohol pumps are located above the main cabin floor, the alcohol shutoff valve need not be installed. In complying with paragraph (5) of AD-49-18-1, a fail-safe electric fuel shutoff valve may be used in lieu of the manually operated valve.
23. Lines and fittings—(a) Engine compartment. C-46 engine compartments which comply with all applicable airworthiness directives, including AD-62-10-2, by using FAA approved fire-resistant lines, hoses, and end fittings, and engine compartments which meet the C-46 transport category requirements, meet the requirements of § 121.259.
(b) Combustion heater compartments All lines, hoses, and end fittings, and couplings which carry fuel to the heaters and heater controls, must be of FAA approved fire-resistant construction.
24. Vent and drain lines—(a) Enginecompartment. C-46 engine compartments meet the requirements of § 121.261 if—
(1) The compartments conform to type design and comply with all applicable airworthiness directives or FAA approved equivalent; and
(2) Drain lines from supercharger case, engine-driven fuel pump, and engine-driven hydraulic pump reach into the scupper drain located in the lower cowling segment.
(b) Combustion heater compartment. C-46 heater compartments meet the requirements of § 121.261 if they conform to AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent.
25. Fire-extinguishing system. (a) To meet the requirements of § 121.263, C-46 airplanes must have installed fire extinguishing systems to serve all designated fire zones. The fire-extinguishing systems, the quantity of extinguishing agent, and the rate of discharge shall be such as to provide a minimum of one adequate discharge for each designated fire zone. Compliance with this provision requires the installation of a separate fire extinguisher for each engine compartment. Insofar as the engine compartment is concerned, the system shall be capable of protecting the entire compartment against the various types of fires likely to occur in the compartment.
(b) Fire-extinguishing systems which conform to the C-46 transport category requirements meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a). Furthermore, fire-extinguishing systems for combustion heater compartments which conform to the requirements of AD-49-18-1 or an FAA approved equivalent also meet the requirements in paragraph (a).
In addition, a fire-extinguishing system for C-46 airplanes meets the adequacy requirement of paragraph (a) if it provides the same or equivalent protection to that demonstrated by the CAA in tests conducted in 1941 and 1942, using a CW-20 type engine nacelle (without diaphragm). These tests were conducted at the Bureau of Standards facilities in Washington, DC, and copies of the test reports are available through the FAA Regional Engineering Offices. In this connection, the flow rates and distribution of extinguishing agent substantiated in American Airmotive Report No. 128-52-d, FAA approved February 9, 1953, provides protection equivalent to that demonstrated by the CAA in the CW-20 tests. In evaluating any C-46 fire-extinguishing system with respect to the aforementioned CW-20 tests, the Administration would require data in a narrative form, utilizing drawings or photographs to show at least the following:
Installation of containers; installation and routing of plumbing; type, number, and location of outlets or nozzles; type, total volume, and distribution of extinguishing agent; length of time required for discharging; means for thermal relief, including type and location of discharge indicators; means of discharging, e.g., mechanical cutterheads, electric cartridge, or other method; and whether a one- or two-shot system is used; and if the latter is used, means of cross-feeding or otherwise selecting distribution of extinguishing agent; and types of materials used in makeup of plumbing.
High rate discharge (HRD) systems using agents such as bromotrifluoromethane, dibrodifluoromethane and chlorobromomethane (CB), may also meet the requirements of paragraph (a).
26. Fire-extinguishing agents, Extinguishing agent container pressure relief, Extinguishing agent container compartment temperatures, and Fire-extinguishing system materials. No change from the requirements of §§ 121.265 through 121.271.
27. Fire-detector system. Compliance with the requirements of § 121.273 requires that C-46 fire detector systems conform to:
(a) AD-62-10-2 or FAA approved equivalent for engine compartments; and
(b) AD-49-18-1 or FAA approved equivalent for combustion heater compartments
28. Fire detectors. No change from the requirements of § 121.275.
29. Protection of other airplane components against fire. To meet the requirements of § 121.277, C-46 airplanes must—
(a) Conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives; and
(b) Be modified or have operational procedures established to provide additional fire protection for the wheel well door aft of each engine compartment. Modifications may consist of improvements in sealing of the main landing gear wheel well doors. An operational procedure which is acceptable to the Agency is one requiring the landing gear control to be placed in the up position in case of in-flight engine fire. In accordance with § 121.315, such procedure must be set forth in the emergency portion of the operator's emergency checklist pertaining to in-flight engine fire.
30. Control of engine rotation. C-46 propeller feathering systems which conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of § 121.279.
31. Fuel system independence. C-46 fuel systems which conform to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meet the requirements of § 121.281.
32. Induction system ice prevention. The C-46 carburetor anti-icing system which conforms to the type design and all applicable airworthiness directives meets the requirements of § 121.283.
33. Carriage of cargo in passenger compartments. Section 121.285 is not applicable to nontransport category C-46 cargo airplanes.
34. Carriage of cargo in cargo compartments. A standard cargo loading and tiedown arrangement set forth in the operator's manual and found acceptable to the Administrator must be used in complying with § 121.287.
35. Performance data. Performance data on Curtiss model C-46 airplane certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 and 48,000 pounds for cargo-only operations.
1. The following performance limitation data, applicable to the Curtiss model C-46 airplane for cargo-only operation, must be used in determining compliance with §§ 121.199 through 121.205. These data are presented in the tables and figures of this appendix.
Table 1—Takeoff Limitations(a) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds.
(1) Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, with zero wind and zero gradient). (Factor = 1.00)
[Distance in feet]
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds | 39,000 | 42,000 | 45,000 1 | S.L | 4,110 | 4,290 | 4,570 | 1,000 | 4,250 | 4,440 | 4,720 | 2,000 | 4,400 | 4,600 | 4,880 | 3,000 | 4,650 | 4,880 | 5,190 | 4,000 | 4,910 | 5,170 | 5,500 | 5,000 | 5,160 | 5,450 | 5,810 | 6,000 | 5,420 | 5,730 | 6,120 | 7,000 | 5,680 | 6,000 | 6,440 | 8,000 | 5,940 | 6,280 | ( 1) |
|---|
1 Ref. Fig. 1(a)(1) for weight and distance for altitudes above 7,000′.
(2) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, divided by the factor 0.85).
[Distance in feet]
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds | 39,000 | 42,000 | 45,000 1 | S.L | 4,830 | 5,050 | 5,370 | 1,000 | 5,000 | 5,230 | 5,550 | 2,000 | 5,170 | 5,410 | 5,740 | 3,000 | 5,470 | 5,740 | 6,100 | 4,000 | 5,770 | 6,080 | 6,470 | 5,000 | 6,070 | 6,410 | 6,830 | 6,000 | 6,380 | 6,740 | 7,200 | 7,000 | 6,680 | 7,070 | 7,570 | 8,000 | 6,990 | 7,410 | ( 1) |
|---|
1 Ref. Fig. 1(a)(2) for weight and distance for altitudes above 7,000′.
(b) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight 48,000 pounds.
(1) Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, with zero wind and zero gradient). (Factor = 1.00)
[Distance in feet]
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds | 39,000 | 42,000 | 45,000 | 48,000 1 | S.L | 4,110 | 4,290 | 4,570 | 4,950 | 1,000 | 4,250 | 4,440 | 4,720 | 5,130 | 2,000 | 4,400 | 4,600 | 4,880 | 5,300 | 3,000 | 4,650 | 4,880 | 5,190 | 5,670 | 4,000 | 4,910 | 5,170 | 5,500 | 6,050 | 5,000 | 5,160 | 5,450 | 5,810 | 6,420 | 6,000 | 5,420 | 5,730 | 6,120 | 6,800 | 7,000 | 5,680 | 6,000 | 6,440 | ( 1) | 8,000 | 5,940 | 6,280 | 6,750 | ( 1) |
|---|
1 Ref. Fig. 1(b)(1) for weight and distance for altitudes above 6,000′.
(2) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined (distance to accelerate to 93 knots TIAS and stop, divided by the factor 0.85).
[Distance in feet]
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds | 39,000 | 42,000 | 45,000 | 48,000 1 | S.L | 4,830 | 5,050 | 5,370 | 5,830 | 1,000 | 5,000 | 5,230 | 5,550 | 6,030 | 2,000 | 5,170 | 5,410 | 5,740 | 6,230 | 3,000 | 5,470 | 5,740 | 6,100 | 6,670 | 4,000 | 5,770 | 6,080 | 6,470 | 7,120 | 5,000 | 6,070 | 6,410 | 6,830 | 7,560 | 6,000 | 6,380 | 6,740 | 7,200 | 8,010 | 7,000 | 6,680 | 7,070 | 7,570 | ( 1) | 8,000 | 6,990 | 7,410 | 7,940 | ( 1) |
|---|
1 Ref. Fig. 1(b)(2) for weight and distance for altitudes above 6,000′.
(a) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds (based on a climb speed of 113 knots (TIAS)).
| Weight (pounds) | Terrain clearance (feet) 1 | Blower setting | 45,000 | 6,450 | Low. | 44,000 | 7,000 | Do. | 43,000 | 7,500 | Do. | 42,200 | 8,000 | High. | 41,000 | 9,600 | Do. | 40,000 | 11,000 | Do. | 39,000 | 12,300 | Do. |
|---|
1 Highest altitude of terrain over which airplanes may be operated in compliance with § 121.201.
Ref. Fig. 2(a).
(b) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds or with engine installation approved for 2,550 revolutions per minute (1,700 brake horsepower). Maximum continuous power in low blower (based on a climb speed of 113 knots (TIAS)).
| Weight (pounds) | Terrain clearance (feet) 1 | Blower setting | 48,000 | 5,850 | Low. | 47,000 | 6,300 | Do. | 46,000 | 6,700 | Do. | 45,000 | 7,200 | Do. | 44,500 | 7,450 | Do. | 44,250 | 8,000 | High. | 44,000 | 8,550 | Do. | 43,000 | 10,800 | Do. | 42,000 | 12,500 | Do. | 41,000 | 13,000 | Do. |
|---|
1 Highest altitude of terrain over which airplanes may be operated in compliance with § 121.201.
Ref. Fig. 2(b).
(a) Intended Destination.
Effective length of runway required for intended destination when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 with zero wind and zero gradient.
(1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.60 factor)
Distance in feet
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds 1 in knots | 40,000 | 42,000 | 44,000 | 45,000 | S.L | 4,320 | 86 | 4,500 | 88 | 4,700 | 90 | 4,800 | 91 | 1,000 | 4,440 | 86 | 4,620 | 88 | 4,830 | 90 | 4,930 | 91 | 2,000 | 4,550 | 86 | 4,750 | 88 | 4,960 | 90 | 5,050 | 91 | 3,000 | 4,670 | 86 | 4,880 | 88 | 5,090 | 90 | 5,190 | 91 | 4,000 | 4,800 | 86 | 5,000 | 88 | 5,220 | 90 | 5,320 | 91 | 5,000 | 4,920 | 86 | 5,140 | 88 | 5,360 | 90 | 5,460 | 91 | 6,000 | 5,040 | 86 | 5,270 | 88 | 5,550 | 90 | 5,600 | 91 | 7,000 | 5,170 | 86 | 5,410 | 88 | 5,650 | 90 | 5,750 | 91 | 8,000 | 5,310 | 86 | 5,550 | 88 | 5,800 | 90 | 5,900 | 91 |
|---|
1 Steady approach speed through 50-foot height TIAS denoted by symbol
Ref. Fig. 3(a)(1).
(2) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds. 1 (0.60 factor.)
Distance in feet
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds 2 in knots | 42,000 | 44,000 | 46,000 | 43,000 | S.L | 3,370 | 80 | 3,490 | 82 | 3,620 | 84 | 3,740 | 86 | 1,000 | 3,460 | 80 | 3,580 | 82 | 3,710 | 84 | 3,830 | 86 | 2,000 | 3,540 | 80 | 3,670 | 82 | 3,800 | 84 | 3,920 | 86 | 3,000 | 3,630 | 80 | 3,760 | 82 | 3,890 | 84 | 4,020 | 86 | 4,000 | 3,720 | 80 | 3,850 | 82 | 3,980 | 84 | 4,110 | 86 | 5,000 | 3,800 | 80 | 3,940 | 82 | 4,080 | 84 | 4,220 | 86 | 6,000 | 3,890 | 80 | 4,040 | 82 | 4,180 | 84 | 4,320 | 86 | 7,000 | 3,980 | 80 | 4,140 | 82 | 4,280 | 84 | 4,440 | 86 | 8,000 | 4,080 | 80 | 4,240 | 82 | 4,390 | 84 | 4,550 | 86 |
|---|
1 For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.
2 Steady approach speed through 50 height knots TIAS denoted by symbol
Ref. Fig. 3(a)(2).
(b) Alternate Airports.
Effective length of runway required when effective length is determined in accordance with § 121.171 with zero wind and zero gradient.
(1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.70 factor.)
Distance in feet
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds 1 in knots | 40,000 | 42,000 | 44,000 | 45,000 | S.L | 3,700 | 86 | 3,860 | 88 | 4,030 | 90 | 4,110 | 91 | 1,000 | 3,800 | 86 | 3,960 | 88 | 4,140 | 90 | 4,220 | 91 | 2,000 | 3,900 | 86 | 4,070 | 88 | 4,250 | 90 | 4,340 | 91 | 3,000 | 4,000 | 86 | 4,180 | 88 | 4,360 | 90 | 4,450 | 91 | 4,000 | 4,110 | 86 | 4,290 | 88 | 4,470 | 90 | 4,560 | 91 | 5,000 | 4,210 | 86 | 4,400 | 88 | 4,590 | 90 | 4,680 | 91 | 6,000 | 4,330 | 86 | 4,510 | 88 | 4,710 | 90 | 4,800 | 91 | 7,000 | 4,430 | 86 | 4,630 | 88 | 4,840 | 90 | 4,930 | 91 | 8,000 | 4,550 | 86 | 4,750 | 88 | 4,970 | 90 | 5,060 | 91 |
|---|
1 Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol
Ref. Fig. 3(b)(1).
(2) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds. 1 (0.70 factor.)
Distance in feet
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds 2 in knots | 42,000 | 44,000 | 46,000 | 48,000 | S.L | 2,890 | 80 | 3,000 | 82 | 3,110 | 84 | 3,220 | 86 | 1,000 | 2,960 | 80 | 3,070 | 82 | 3,180 | 84 | 3,280 | 86 | 2,000 | 3,040 | 80 | 3,150 | 82 | 3,260 | 84 | 3,360 | 86 | 3,000 | 3,110 | 80 | 3,220 | 82 | 3,340 | 84 | 3,440 | 86 | 4,000 | 3,180 | 80 | 3,300 | 82 | 3,410 | 84 | 3,520 | 86 | 5,000 | 3,260 | 80 | 3,380 | 82 | 3,500 | 84 | 3,610 | 86 | 6,000 | 3,330 | 80 | 3,460 | 82 | 3,580 | 84 | 3,700 | 86 | 7,000 | 3,420 | 80 | 3,540 | 82 | 3,670 | 84 | 3,800 | 86 | 8,000 | 3,500 | 80 | 3,630 | 82 | 3,760 | 84 | 3,900 | 86 |
|---|
1 For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.
2 Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol
Ref. Fig. 3(b)(2).
(c) Actual length of runway required when effective length, considering obstacles, is not determined in accordance with § 121.171.
(1) Curtiss model C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 45,000 pounds. (0.55 factor.)
Distance in feet
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds 1 in knots | 40,000 | 42,000 | 44,000 | 45,000 | S.L | 4,710 | 86 | 4,910 | 88 | 5,130 | 90 | 5,230 | 91 | 1,000 | 4,840 | 86 | 5,050 | 88 | 5,270 | 90 | 5,370 | 91 | 2,000 | 4,960 | 86 | 5,180 | 88 | 5,410 | 90 | 5,510 | 91 | 3,000 | 5,090 | 86 | 5,320 | 88 | 5,550 | 90 | 5,660 | 91 | 4,000 | 5,230 | 86 | 5,460 | 88 | 5,700 | 90 | 5,810 | 91 | 5,000 | 5,360 | 86 | 5,600 | 88 | 5,850 | 90 | 5,960 | 91 | 6,000 | 5,500 | 86 | 5,740 | 88 | 6,000 | 90 | 6,110 | 91 | 7,000 | 5,640 | 86 | 5,900 | 88 | 6,170 | 90 | 6,280 | 91 | 8,000 | 5,790 | 86 | 6,050 | 88 | 6,340 | 90 | 6,450 | 91 |
|---|
1 Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol
Ref. Fig. 3(c)(1).
(2) Curtiss C-46 certificated for maximum weight of 48,000 pounds. 1 (0.55 factor.)
Distance in feet
| Standard altitude in feet | Airplane weight in pounds and approach speeds 2 in knots | 42,000 | 44,000 | 46,000 | 48,000 | S.L | 3,680 | 80 | 3,820 | 82 | 3,960 | 84 | 4,090 | 86 | 1,000 | 3,770 | 80 | 3,910 | 82 | 4,050 | 84 | 4,180 | 86 | 2,000 | 3,860 | 80 | 4,000 | 82 | 4,140 | 84 | 4,280 | 86 | 3,000 | 3,960 | 80 | 4,090 | 82 | 4,240 | 84 | 4,380 | 86 | 4,000 | 4,050 | 80 | 4,190 | 82 | 4,340 | 84 | 4,490 | 86 | 5,000 | 4,150 | 80 | 4,290 | 82 | 4,450 | 84 | 4,600 | 86 | 6,000 | 4,240 | 80 | 4,400 | 82 | 4,560 | 84 | 4,710 | 86 | 7,000 | 4,350 | 80 | 4,510 | 82 | 4,670 | 84 | 4,840 | 86 | 8,000 | 4,450 | 80 | 4,620 | 82 | 4,790 | 84 | 4,960 | 86 |
|---|
1 For use with Curtiss model C-46 airplanes when approved for this weight.
2 Steady approach speed through 50 foot-height-knots TIAS denoted by symbol
Ref. Fig. 3(c)(2).
Appendix D - Appendix D to Part 121—Criteria for Demonstration of Emergency Evacuation Procedures Under § 121.291
(a) Aborted takeoff demonstration. (1) The demonstration must be conducted either during the dark of the night or during daylight with the dark of the night simulated. If the demonstration is conducted indoors during daylight hours, it must be conducted with each window covered and each door closed to minimize the daylight effect. Illumination on the floor or ground may be used, but it must be kept low and shielded against shining into the airplane's windows or doors.
(2) The airplane must be a normal ground attitude with landing gear extended.
(3) Unless the airplane is equipped with an off-wing descent means, stands or ramps may be used for descent from the wing to the ground. Safety equipment such as mats or inverted life rafts may be placed on the floor or ground to protect participants. No other equipment that is not part of the emergency evacuation equipment of the airplane may be used to aid the participants in reaching the ground.
(4) The airplane's normal electrical power sources must be deenergized.
(5) All emergency equipment for the type of passenger-carrying operation involved must be installed in accordance with the certificate holder's manual.
(6) Each external door and exit, and each internal door or curtain must be in position to simulate a normal takeoff.
(7) A representative passenger load of persons in normal health must be used. At least 40 percent of the passenger load must be females. At least 35 percent of the passenger load must be over 50 years of age. At least 15 percent of the passenger load must be female and over 50 year of age. Three life-size dolls, not included as part of the total passenger load, must be carried by passengers to simulate live infants 2 years old or younger. Crewmembers, mechanics, and training personnel, who maintain or operate the airplane in the normal course of their duties, may not be used as passengers.
(8) No passenger may be assigned a specific seat except as the Administrator may require. Except as required by item (12) of this paragraph, no employee of the certificate holder may be seated next to an emergency exit.
(9) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses (as required) must be fastened.
(10) Before the start of the demonstration, approximately one-half of the total average amount of carry-on baggage, blankets, pillows, and other similar articles must be distributed at several locations in the aisles and emergency exit access ways to create minor obstructions.
(11) The seating density and arrangement of the airplane must be representative of the highest capacity passenger version of that airplane the certificate holder operates or proposes to operate.
(12) Each crewmember must be a member of a regularly scheduled line crew, except that flight crewmembers need not be members of a regularly scheduled line crew, provided they have knowledge of the airplane. Each crewmember must be seated in the seat the crewmember is normally assigned for takeoff, and must remain in that seat until the signal for commencement of the demonstration is received.
(13) No crewmember or passenger may be given prior knowledge of the emergency exits available for the demonstration.
(14) The certificate holder may not practice, rehearse, or describe the demonstration for the participants nor may any participant have taken part in this type of demonstration within the preceding 6 months.
(15) The pretakeoff passenger briefing required by § 121.571 may be given in accordance with the certificate holder's manual. The passengers may also be warned to follow directions of crewmembers, but may not be instructed on the procedures to be followed in the demonstration.
(16) If safety equipment as allowed by item (3) of this section is provided, either all passenger and cockpit windows must be blacked out or all of the emergency exits must have safety equipment in order to prevent disclosure of the available emergency exits.
(17) Not more than 50 percent of the emergency exits in the sides of the fuselage of an airplane that meet all of the requirements applicable to the required emergency exits for that airplane may be used for the demonstration. Exits that are not to be used in the demonstration must have the exit handle deactivated or must be indicated by red lights, red tape, or other acceptable means, placed outside the exits to indicate fire or other reason that they are unusable. The exits to be used must be representative of all of the emergency exits on the airplane and must be designated by the certificate holder, subject to approval by the Administrator. At least one floor level exit must be used.
(18) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this appendix, all evacuees must leave the airplane by a means provided as part of the airplane's equipment.
(19) The certificate holder's approved procedures and all of the emergency equipment that is normally available, including slides, ropes, lights, and megaphones, must be fully utilized during the demonstration, except that the flightcrew must take no active role in assisting others inside the cabin during the demonstration.
(20) The evacuation time period is completed when the last occupant has evacuated the airplane and is on the ground. Evacuees using stands or ramps allowed by item (3) above are considered to be on the ground when they are on the stand or ramp: Provided, That the acceptance rate of the stand or ramp is no greater than the acceptance rate of the means available on the airplane for descent from the wing during an actual crash situation.
(b) Ditching demonstration. The demonstration must assume that daylight hours exist outside the airplane, and that all required crewmembers are available for the demonstration.
(1) If the certificate holder's manual requires the use of passengers to assist in the launching of liferafts, the needed passengers must be aboard the airplane and participate in the demonstration according to the manual.
(2) A stand must be placed at each emergency exit and wing, with the top of the platform at a height simulating the water level of the airplane following a ditching.
(3) After the ditching signal has been received, each evacuee must don a life vest according to the certificate holder's manual.
(4) Each liferaft must be launched and inflated, according to the certificate holder's manual, and all other required emergency equipment must be placed in rafts.
(5) Each evacuee must enter a liferaft, and the crewmembers assigned to each liferaft must indicate the location of emergency equipment aboard the raft and describe its use.
(6) Either the airplane, a mockup of the airplane or a floating device simulating a passenger compartment must be used.
(i) If a mockup of the airplane is used, it must be a life-size mockup of the interior and representative of the airplane currently used by or proposed to be used by the certificate holder, and must contain adequate seats for use of the evacuees. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate those on the airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation.
(ii) If a floating device simulating a passenger compartment is used, it must be representative, to the extent possible, of the passenger compartment of the airplane used in operations. Operation of the emergency exits and the doors must closely simulate operation on that airplane. Sufficient wing area must be installed outside the over-the-wing exits to demonstrate the evacuation. The device must be equipped with the same survival equipment as is installed on the airplane, to accommodate all persons participating in the demonstration.
Appendix E - Appendix E to Part 121—Flight Training Requirements
(a) The maneuvers and procedures required by § 121.424 for pilot initial, transition, and conversion flight training are set forth in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program, § 121.423 extended envelope training, and in this appendix. The maneuvers and procedures required for upgrade training in accordance with § 121.424 are set forth in this appendix and in the certificate holder's approved low-altitude windshear flight training program and § 121.423 extended envelope training. For the maneuvers and procedures required for upgrade training in accordance with § 121.426, this appendix designates the airplane or FSTD, as appropriate, that may be used.
(b) All required maneuvers and procedures must be performed inflight except that windshear and extended envelope training maneuvers and procedures must be performed in a full flight simulator (FFS) in which the maneuvers and procedures are specifically authorized to be accomplished. Certain other maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an FFS, an FTD, or a static airplane as indicated by the appropriate symbol in the respective column opposite the maneuver or procedure.
(c) Whenever a maneuver or procedure is authorized to be performed in an FTD, it may be performed in an FFS, and in some cases, a static airplane. Whenever the requirement may be performed in either an FTD or a static airplane, the appropriate symbols are entered in the respective columns.
(d) A Level B or higher FFS may be used instead of the airplane to satisfy the inflight requirements if the FFS is approved under § 121.407 and is used as part of an approved program that meets the requirements for an Advanced Simulation Training Program in Appendix H of this part.
(e) For the purpose of this appendix, the following symbols mean—
I = Pilot in Command (PIC) and Second in Command (SIC) initial training T = PIC and SIC transition training U = SIC to PIC upgrade training C = Flight engineer (FE) to SIC conversion training| Maneuvers/procedures | Inflight | Static
airplane | FFS | FTD | As appropriate to the airplane and the operation involved, flight training for pilots must include the following maneuvers and procedures | I. Preflight: | (a) Visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane, the location of each item to be inspected, and the purpose for inspecting it. The visual inspection may be conducted using an approved pictorial means that realistically portrays the location and detail of visual inspection items and provides for the portrayal of normal and abnormal conditions | I, T, U, C | (b) Use of the prestart checklist, appropriate control system checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks, and the selection of proper navigation and communications radio facilities and frequencies prior to flight | I, T, U, C | (c)(1) Before March 12, 2019, taxiing, sailing, and docking procedures in compliance with instructions issued by ATC or by the person conducting the training | I, T, U, C | (2) Taxiing. Beginning March 12, 2019, this maneuver includes the following: | (i) Taxiing, sailing, and docking procedures in compliance with instructions issued by ATC or by the person conducting the training | I, T, U, C | (ii) Use of airport diagram (surface movement chart) | I, T, U, C | (iii) Obtaining appropriate clearance before crossing or entering active runways | I, T, U, C | (iv) Observation of all surface movement guidance control markings and lighting | I, T, U, C | (d)(1) Before March 12, 2019, pre-takeoff checks that include powerplant checks | I, T, U, C | (2) Beginning March 12, 2019, pre-takeoff procedures that include powerplant checks, receipt of takeoff clearance and confirmation of aircraft location, and FMS entry (if appropriate) for departure runway prior to crossing hold short line for takeoff | I, T, U, C | II. Takeoffs: | Training in takeoffs must include the types and conditions listed below but more than one type may be combined where appropriate: | (a) Normal takeoffs which, for the purpose of this maneuver, begin when the airplane is taxied into position on the runway to be used | I, T, U, C | (b) Takeoffs with instrument conditions simulated at or before reaching an altitude of 100′ above the airport elevation | I, T, U, C | (c)(1) Crosswind takeoffs | I, T, U, C | (2) Beginning March 12, 2019, crosswind takeoffs including crosswind takeoffs with gusts if practicable under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions | I, T, U, C | (d) Takeoffs with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant— | I, T, U, C | (1) At a point after V1 and before V2 that in the judgment of the person conducting the training is appropriate to the airplane type under the prevailing conditions; or | I, T, U, C | (2) At a point as close as possible after V1 when V1 and V2 or V1 and VR are identical; or | I, T, U, C | (3) At the appropriate speed for nontransport category airplanes | I, T, U, C | (e) Rejected takeoffs accomplished during a normal takeoff run after reaching a reasonable speed determined by giving due consideration to aircraft characteristics, runway length, surface conditions, wind direction and velocity, brake heat energy, and any other pertinent factors that may adversely affect safety or the airplane | I, T, U, C | (f) Night takeoffs. For pilots in transition training, this requirement may be met during the operating experience required under § 121.434 by performing a normal takeoff at night when a check airman serving as PIC is occupying a pilot station | I, T, U, C | III. Flight Maneuvers and Procedures: | (a) Turns with and without spoilers | I, T, U, C | (b) Tuck and Mach buffet | I, T, U, C | (c) Maximum endurance and maximum range procedures | I, T, U, C | (d) Operation of systems and controls at the flight engineer station | I, T, U | (e) Runaway and jammed stabilizer | I, T, U, C | (f) Normal and abnormal or alternate operation of the following systems and procedures: | (1) Pressurization | I, T, U, C. | (2) Pneumatic | I, T, U, C. | (3) Air conditioning | I, T, U, C. | (4) Fuel and oil | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (5) Electrical | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (6) Hydraulic | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (7) Flight control | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (8) Anti-icing and deicing | I, T, U, C | (9) Autopilot | I, T, U, C | (10) Automatic or other approach aids | I, T, U, C | (11) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices | I, T, U, C | (12) Airborne radar devices | I, T, U, C | (13) Any other systems, devices, or aids available | I, T, U, C | (14) Electrical, hydraulic, flight control, and flight instrument system malfunctioning or failure | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (15) Landing gear and flap systems failure or malfunction | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (16) Failure of navigation or communications equipment | I, T, U, C | (g) Flight emergency procedures that include at least the following: | (1) Powerplant, heater, cargo compartment, cabin, flight deck, wing, and electrical fires | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (2) Smoke control | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (3) Powerplant failures | I, T | U, C. | (4) Fuel jettisoning | I, T, U, C | I, T, U, C. | (5) Any other emergency procedures outlined in the appropriate flight manual | I, T, U, C | (h) Steep turns in each direction. Each steep turn must involve a bank angle of 45° with a heading change of at least 180° but not more than 360°. This maneuver is not required for Group I transition training | I, T, U, C | (i) Stall Prevention. For the purpose of this training the approved recovery procedure must be initiated at the first indication of an impending stall (buffet, stick shaker, aural warning). Stall prevention training must be conducted in at least the following configurations: | I, T, U, C | (1) Takeoff configuration (except where the airplane uses only a zero-flap takeoff configuration) | I, T, U, C | (2) Clean configuration | I, T, U, C | (3) Landing configuration | I, T, U, C | (j) Recovery from specific flight characteristics that are peculiar to the airplane type | I, T, U, C | (k) Instrument procedures that include the following: | (1) Area departure and arrival | I, T, U, C | (2) Use of navigation systems including adherence to assigned radials | I, T, U, C | (3) Holding | I, T, U, C | (l) ILS instrument approaches that include the following: | (1) Normal ILS approaches | I, T, U, C | (2) Manually controlled ILS approaches with a simulated failure of one powerplant which occurs before initiating the final approach course and continues to touchdown or through the missed approach procedure | I | T, U, C | (m) Instrument approaches and missed approaches other than ILS which include the following: | (1) Nonprecision approaches that the pilot is likely to use | U, C | I, T. | (2) In addition to subparagraph (1) of this paragraph, at least one other nonprecision approach and missed approach procedure that the pilot is likely to use | I, T, U, C | In connection with paragraphs III(l) and III(m), each instrument approach must be performed according to any procedures and limitations approved for the approach facility used. The instrument approach begins when the airplane is over the initial approach fix for the approach procedure being used (or turned over to the final approach controller in the case of GCA approach) and ends when the airplane touches down on the runway or when transition to a missed approach configuration is completed | (n) Circling approaches which include the following: | I, T, U, C | (1) That portion of the circling approach to the authorized minimum altitude for the procedure being used must be made under simulated instrument conditions | I, T, U, C | (2) The circling approach must be made to the authorized minimum circling approach altitude followed by a change in heading and the necessary maneuvering (by visual reference) to maintain a flight path that permits a normal landing on a runway at least 90° from the final approach course of the simulated instrument portion of the approach | I, T, U, C | (3) The circling approach must be performed without excessive maneuvering, and without exceeding the normal operating limits of the airplane. The angle of bank should not exceed 30° | I, T, U, C | Training in the circling approach maneuver is not required if the certificate holder's manual prohibits a circling approach in weather conditions below 1000-3 (ceiling and visibility) | (o) Zero-flap approaches. Training in this maneuver is not required for a particular airplane type if the Administrator has determined that the probability of flap extension failure on that type airplane is extremely remote due to system design. In making this determination, the Administrator determines whether training on slats only and partial flap approaches is necessary | I, C | T, U | (p) Missed approaches which include the following: | (1) Missed approaches from ILS approaches | I, T, U, C | (2) Other missed approaches | I, T, U, C. | (3) Missed approaches that include a complete approved missed approach procedure | I, T, U, C. | (4) Missed approaches that include a powerplant failure | I, T, U, C | IV. Landings and Approaches to Landings: | Training in landings and approaches to landings must include the types and conditions listed below but more than one type may be combined where appropriate: | (a) Normal landings | I, T, U, C | (b) Landing and go around with the horizontal stabilizer out of trim | I, C | T | U. | (c) Landing in sequence from an ILS instrument approach | I | T, U, C | (d)(1) Crosswind landing | I, T, U, C | (2) Beginning March 12, 2019, crosswind landing, including crosswind landings with gusts if practicable under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions | I, T, U, C | (e) Maneuvering to a landing with simulated powerplant failure, as follows: | (1) For 3-engine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with an approved procedure that approximates the loss of two powerplants (center and one outboard engine) | I, C | T, U | (2) For other multiengine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with a simulated failure of 50 percent of available powerplants with the simulated loss of power on one side of the airplane | I, C | T, U | (f) Landing under simulated circling approach conditions (exceptions under III(n) applicable to this requirement) | I | T, U, C | (g) Rejected landings that include a normal missed approach procedure after the landing is rejected. For the purpose of this maneuver the landing should be rejected at approximately 50 feet and approximately over the runway threshold | I | T, U, C | (h) Zero-flap landings if the Administrator finds that maneuver appropriate for training in the airplane | I, C | T, U | (i) Manual reversion | I, T, U, C | (j) Night landings. For pilots in transition training, this requirement may be met during the operating experience required under § 121.434 by performing a normal landing at night when a check airman serving as PIC is occupying a pilot station | I, T, U, C |
|---|
Appendix F - Appendix F to Part 121—Proficiency Check Requirements
(a) The maneuvers and procedures required by § 121.441 for pilot proficiency checks are set forth in this appendix. Except for the equipment examination, these maneuvers and procedures must be performed inflight. Certain maneuvers and procedures may be performed in an FFS or an FTD as indicated by the appropriate symbol in the respective column opposite the maneuver or procedure.
(b) Whenever a maneuver or procedure is authorized to be performed in an FTD, it may be performed in an FFS.
(c) A Level B or higher FFS may be used instead of the airplane to satisfy the inflight requirements if the FFS is approved under § 121.407 and is used as part of an approved program that meets the requirements for an Advanced Simulation Training Program in Appendix H of this part.
(d) For the purpose of this appendix, the following symbols mean—
B = Both Pilot in Command (PIC) and Second in Command (SIC).
W = May be waived for both PIC and SIC, except during a proficiency check conducted to qualify a PIC after completing an upgrade training curriculum in accordance with §§ 121.420 and 121.426.
* = A symbol and asterisk (B* or W*) indicates that a particular condition is specified in the maneuvers and procedures column.
# = When a maneuver is preceded by this symbol it indicates the maneuver may be required in the airplane at the discretion of the person conducting the check.
(e) Throughout the maneuvers and procedures prescribed in this appendix, good judgment commensurate with a high level of safety must be demonstrated. In determining whether such judgment has been shown, the person conducting the check considers adherence to approved procedures, actions based on analysis of situations for which there is no prescribed procedure or recommended practice, and qualities of prudence and care in selecting a course of action.
| Maneuvers/procedures | Required | Permitted | Simulated instrument conditions | Inflight | FFS | FTD | Waiver
provisions of § 121.441(d) | The procedures and maneuvers set forth in this appendix must be performed in a manner that satisfactorily demonstrates knowledge and skill with respect to — | (1) The airplane, its systems and components; | (2) Proper control of airspeed, configuration, direction, altitude, and attitude in accordance with procedures and limitations contained in the approved Airplane Flight Manual, the certificate holder's operations manual, checklists, or other approved material appropriate to the airplane type; and | (3) Compliance with approach, ATC, or other applicable procedures. | I. Preflight: | (a) Equipment examination (oral or written). As part of the proficiency check the equipment examination must be closely coordinated with, and related to, the flight maneuvers portion but may not be given during the flight maneuvers portion. The equipment examination must cover— | (1) Subjects requiring a practical knowledge of the airplane, its powerplants, systems, components, operational and performance factors; | (2) Normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures, and the operations and limitations relating thereto; and | (3) The appropriate provisions of the approved Airplane Flight Manual | The person conducting the check may accept, as equal to this equipment examination, an equipment examination given to the pilot in the certificate holder's ground training within the preceding 6 calendar months | (b) Preflight inspection. The pilot must— | (1) Conduct an actual visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane, locating each item and explaining briefly the purpose for inspecting it. The visual inspection may be conducted using an approved pictorial means that realistically portrays the location and detail of visual inspection items and provides for the portrayal of normal and abnormal conditions. If a flight engineer is a required flightcrew member for the particular type airplane, the visual inspection may be waived under § 121.441(d) | B | W* | (2) Demonstrate the use of the prestart checklist, appropriate control system checks, starting procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks, and the selection of proper navigation and communications radio facilities and frequencies prior to flight | B | (c)(1) Taxiing. Before March 12, 2019, this maneuver includes taxiing, sailing, or docking procedures in compliance with instructions issued by ATC or by the person conducting the check. SIC proficiency checks for a type rating must include taxiing. However, other SIC proficiency checks need only include taxiing to the extent practical from the seat position assigned to the SIC | B | (c)(2) Taxiing. Beginning March 12, 2019, this maneuver includes the following: (i) Taxiing, sailing, or docking procedures in compliance with instructions issued by ATC or by the person conducting the check. (ii) Use of airport diagram (surface movement chart). (iii) Obtaining appropriate clearance before crossing or entering active runways. (iv) Observation of all surface movement guidance control markings and lighting. SIC proficiency checks for a type rating must include taxiing. However, other SIC proficiency checks need only include taxiing to the extent practical from the seat position assigned to the SIC | B | (d)(1) Powerplant checks. As appropriate to the airplane type | B | (d)(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, pre-takeoff procedures that include powerplant checks, receipt of takeoff clearance and confirmation of aircraft location, and FMS entry (if appropriate), for departure runway prior to crossing hold short line for takeoff | B | II. Takeoff: | Takeoffs must include the types listed below, but more than one type may be combined where appropriate: | (a) Normal. One normal takeoff which, for the purpose of this maneuver, begins when the airplane is taxied into position on the runway to be used | B* | (b) Instrument. One takeoff with instrument conditions simulated at or before reaching an altitude of 100′ above the airport elevation | B | B* | (c)(1) Crosswind. Before March 12, 2019, one crosswind takeoff, if practicable, under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions | B* | (c)(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, one crosswind takeoff with gusts, if practicable, under the existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions | B* | #(d) Powerplant failure. One takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant— | B | (1) At a point after V1 and before V2 that in the judgment of the person conducting the check is appropriate to the airplane type under the prevailing conditions; | B | (2) At a point as close as possible after V1 when V1 and V2 or V1 and Vr are identical; or | B | (3) At the appropriate speed for nontransport category airplanes | B | (e) Rejected. A rejected takeoff may be performed in an airplane during a normal takeoff run after reaching a reasonable speed determined by giving due consideration to aircraft characteristics, runway length, surface conditions, wind direction and velocity, brake heat energy, and any other pertinent factors that may adversely affect safety or the airplane | B* | W | III. Instrument procedures: | (a) Area departure and area arrival. During each of these maneuvers the pilot must— | B | B | W* | (1) Adhere to actual or simulated ATC clearances (including assigned radials); and | B | B | (2) Properly use available navigation facilities | B | B | Either area arrival or area departure, but not both, may be waived under § 121.441(d). | (b) Holding. This maneuver includes entering, maintaining, and leaving holding patterns. It may be performed in connection with either area departure or area arrival | B | B | W | (c) ILS and other instrument approaches. There must be the following: | (1) At least one normal ILS approach | B | B | (2) At least one manually controlled ILS approach with a simulated failure of one powerplant. The simulated failure should occur before initiating the final approach course and must continue to touchdown or through the missed approach procedure | B | B | (3) At least one nonprecision approach procedure using a type of nonprecision approach procedure that the certificate holder is approved to use | B | B | (4) At least one nonprecision approach procedure using a different type of nonprecision approach procedure than performed under subparagraph (3) of this paragraph that the certificate holder is approved to use | B | B | (5) For each type of EFVS operation the certificate holder is authorized to conduct, at least one instrument approach must be made using an EFVS | B | B* | Each instrument approach must be performed according to any procedures and limitations approved for the approach procedure used. The instrument approach begins when the airplane is over the initial approach fix for the approach procedure being used (or turned over to the final approach controller in the case of GCA approach) and ends when the airplane touches down on the runway or when transition to a missed approach configuration is completed. Instrument conditions need not be simulated below 100′ above touchdown zone elevation. | (d) Circling approaches. If the certificate holder is approved for circling minimums below 1000-3 (ceiling and visibility), at least one circling approach must be made under the following conditions— | B* | W* | (1) The portion of the approach to the authorized minimum circling approach altitude must be made under simulated instrument conditions | B | B* | (2) The approach must be made to the authorized minimum circling approach altitude followed by a change in heading and the necessary maneuvering (by visual reference) to maintain a flight path that permits a normal landing on a runway at least 90° from the final approach course of the simulated instrument portion of the approach | B* | (3) The circling approach must be performed without excessive maneuvering, and without exceeding the normal operating limits of the airplane. The angle of bank should not exceed 30° | B* | If local conditions beyond the control of the pilot prohibit the maneuver or prevent it from being performed as required, it may be waived as provided in § 121.441(d). However, the maneuver may not be waived under this provision for two successive proficiency checks. Except for a SIC proficiency check for a type rating, the circling approach maneuver is not required for a SIC if the certificate holder's manual prohibits a SIC from performing a circling approach in operations under this part. | (e) Missed approach. | (1) At least one missed approach from an ILS approach | B* | (2) At least one additional missed approach for SIC proficiency checks for a type rating and for all PIC proficiency checks | B* | A complete approved missed approach procedure must be accomplished at least once. At the discretion of the person conducting the check a simulated powerplant failure may be required during any of the missed approaches. These maneuvers may be performed either independently or in conjunction with maneuvers required under Sections III or V of this appendix. At least one missed approach must be performed inflight. | IV. Inflight Maneuvers: | (a) Steep turns. For SIC proficiency checks for a type rating and for all PIC proficiency checks, at least one steep turn in each direction must be performed. Each steep turn must involve a bank angle of 45° with a heading change of at least 180° but not more than 360° | B | B | W | (b) Stall Prevention. For the purpose of this maneuver the approved recovery procedure must be initiated at the first indication of an impending stall (buffet, stick shaker, aural warning). Except as provided below there must be at least three stall prevention recoveries as follows: | B | B | W* | (1) Takeoff configuration (except where the airplane uses only a zero-flap takeoff configuration) | B | B | (2) Clean configuration | B | B | (3) Landing configuration | B | B | At the discretion of the person conducting the check, one stall prevention recovery must be performed in one of the above configurations while in a turn with the bank angle between 15° and 30°. Two out of the three stall prevention recoveries required by this paragraph may be waived. | If the certificate holder is authorized to dispatch or flight release the airplane with a stall warning device inoperative the device may not be used during this maneuver. | (c) Specific flight characteristics. Recovery from specific flight characteristics that are peculiar to the airplane type | B | W | (d) Powerplant failures. In addition to specific requirements for maneuvers with simulated powerplant failures, the person conducting the check may require a simulated powerplant failure at any time during the check | B | V. Landings and Approaches to Landings: | Notwithstanding the authorizations for combining and waiving maneuvers and for the use of an FFS, at least two actual landings (one to a full stop) must be made for all PIC proficiency checks, all initial SIC proficiency checks, and all SIC proficiency checks for a type rating | Landings and approaches to landings must include the types listed below, but more than one type may be combined where appropriate: | (a) Normal landing | B | (b) Landing in sequence from an ILS instrument approach except that if circumstances beyond the control of the pilot prevent an actual landing, the person conducting the check may accept an approach to a point where in his judgment a landing to a full stop could have been made | B* | (c)(1) Crosswind landing, if practical under existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions | B* | (c)(2) Beginning March 12, 2019, crosswind landing with gusts, if practical under existing meteorological, airport, and traffic conditions | B* | (d) Maneuvering to a landing with simulated powerplant failure as follows: | (1) In the case of 3-engine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with an approved procedure that approximates the loss of two powerplants (center and one outboard engine); or | B* | (2) In the case of other multiengine airplanes, maneuvering to a landing with a simulated failure of 50 percent of available powerplants, with the simulated loss of power on one side of the airplane | B* | Notwithstanding the requirements of subparagraphs (d) (1) and (2) of this paragraph, for an SIC proficiency check, except for an SIC proficiency check for a type rating, the simulated loss of power may be only the most critical powerplant.
In addition, a PIC may omit the maneuver required by subparagraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this paragraph during a required proficiency check or FFS course of training if he satisfactorily performed that maneuver during the preceding proficiency check, or during the preceding approved FFS course of training under the observation of a check airman, whichever was completed later. | (e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, if the certificate holder is approved for circling minimums below 1000-3 (ceiling and visibility), a landing under simulated circling approach conditions. However, when performed in an airplane, if circumstances beyond the control of the pilot prevent a landing, the person conducting the check may accept an approach to a point where, in his judgment, a landing to a full stop could have been made | B* | #(f) A rejected landing, including a normal missed approach procedure, that is rejected approximately 50′ over the runway and approximately over the runway threshold. This maneuver may be combined with instrument, circling, or missed approach procedures, but instrument conditions need not be simulated below 100 feet above the runway | B | (g) If the certificate holder is authorized to conduct EFVS operations to touchdown and rollout, at least one instrument approach to a landing must be made using an EFVS, including the use of enhanced flight vision from 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation to touchdown and rollout | B | B* | (h) If the certificate holder is authorized to conduct EFVS operations to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation, at least one instrument approach to a landing must be made using an EFVS, including the transition from enhanced flight vision to natural vision at 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation | B | B* | VI. Normal and Abnormal Procedures: | Each pilot must demonstrate the proper use of as many of the systems and devices listed below as the person conducting the check finds are necessary to determine that the person being checked has a practical knowledge of the use of the systems and devices appropriate to the airplane type: | (a) Anti-icing and deicing systems | B | (b) Autopilot systems | B | (c) Automatic or other approach aid systems | B | (d) Stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices | B | (e) Airborne radar devices | B | (f) Any other systems, devices, or aids available | B | (g) Hydraulic and electrical system failures and malfunctions | B | (h) Landing gear and flap systems failure or malfunction | B | (i) Failure of navigation or communications equipment | B | VII. Emergency Procedures: | Each pilot must demonstrate the proper emergency procedures for as many of the emergency situations listed below as the person conducting the check finds are necessary to determine that the person being checked has an adequate knowledge of, and ability to perform, such procedure: | (a) Fire in flight | B | (b) Smoke control | B | (c) Rapid decompression | B | (d) Emergency descent | B | (e) Any other emergency procedures outlined in the approved Airplane Flight Manual | B |
|---|
Appendix G - Appendix G to Part 121—Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation System (INS): Request for Evaluation; Equipment and Equipment Installation; Training Program; Equipment Accuracy and Reliability; Evaluation Program
1. Application authority. (a) An applicant for authority to use a Doppler Radar or Inertial Navigation System must submit a request for evaluation of the system to the responsible Flight Standards office charged with the overall inspection of its operations 30 days prior to the start of evaluation flights.
(b) The application must contain:
(1) A summary of experience with the system showing to the satisfaction of the Administrator a history of the accuracy and reliability of the system proposed to be used.
(2) A training program curriculum for initial approval under § 121.405.
(3) A maintenance program for compliance with subpart L of this part.
(4) A description of equipment installation.
(5) Proposed revisions to the Operations Manual outlining all normal and emergency procedures relative to use of the proposed system, including detailed methods for continuing the navigational function with partial or complete equipment failure, and methods for determining the most accurate system when an unusually large divergence between systems occurs. For the purpose of this appendix, a large divergence is a divergence that results in a track that falls beyond clearance limits.
(6) Any proposed revisions to the minimum equipment list with adequate justification therefor.
(7) A list of operations to be conducted using the system, containing an analysis of each with respect to length, magnetic compass reliability, availability of en route aids, and adequacy of gateway and terminal radio facilities to support the system. For the purpose of this appendix, a gateway is a specific navigational fix where use of long range navigation commences or terminates.
2. Equipment and equipment installation—Inertial Navigation Systems (INS) or Doppler Radar System. (a) Inertial Navigation and Doppler Radar Systems must be installed in accordance with applicable airworthiness requirements.
(b) Cockpit arrangement must be visible and useable by either pilot seated at his duty station.
(c) The equipment must provide, by visual, mechanical, or electrical output signals, indications of the invalidity of output data upon the occurrence of probable failures or malfunctions within the system.
(d) A probable failure or malfunction within the system must not result in loss of the aircraft's required navigation capability.
(e) The alignment, updating, and navigation computer functions of the system must not be invalidated by normal aircraft power interruptions and transients.
(f) The system must not be the source of cause of objectionable radio frequency interference, and must not be adversely affected by radio frequency interference from other aircraft systems.
(g) The FAA-approved airplane flight manual, or supplement thereto, must include pertinent material as required to define the normal and emergency operating procedures and applicable operating limitations associated with INS and Doppler performance (such as maximum latitude at which ground alignment capability is provided, or deviations between systems).
3. Equipment and equipment installation—Inertial Navigation Systems (INS). (a) If an applicant elects to use an Inertial Navigation System it must be at least a dual system (including navigational computers and reference units). At least two systems must be operational at takeoff. The dual system may consist of either two INS units, or one INS unit and one Doppler Radar unit.
(b) Each Inertial Navigation System must incorporate the following:
(1) Valid ground alignment capability at all latitudes appropriate for intended use of the installation.
(2) A display of alignment status or a ready to navigate light showing completed alignment to the flight crew.
(3) The present position of the airplane in suitable coordinates.
(4) Information relative to destinations or waypoint positions:
(i) The information needed to gain and maintain a desired track and to determine deviations from the desired track.
(ii) The information needed to determine distance and time to go to the next waypoint or destination.
(c) For INS installations that do not have memory or other inflight alignment means, a separate electrical power source (independent of the main propulsion system) must be provided which can supply, for at least 5 minutes, enough power (as shown by analysis or as demonstrated in the airplane) to maintain the INS in such condition that its full capability is restored upon the reactivation of the normal electrical supply.
(d) The equipment must provide such visual, mechanical, or electrical output signals as may be required to permit the flight crew to detect probable failures or malfunctions in the system.
4. Equipment and equipment installation—Doppler Radar Systems. (a) If an applicant elects to use a Doppler Radar System it must be at least a dual system (including dual antennas or a combined antenna designed for multiple operation), except that:
(1) A single operating transmitter with a standby capable of operation may be used in lieu of two operating transmitters.
(2) Single heading source information to all installations may be utilized, provided a compass comparator system is installed and operational procedures call for frequent cross-checks of all compass heading indicators by crewmembers.
The dual system may consist of either two Doppler Radar units or one Doppler Radar unit and one INS unit.(b) At least two systems must be operational at takeoff.
(c) As determined by the Administrator and specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications, other navigational aids may be required to update the Doppler Radar for a particular operation. These may include DME, VOR, ADF, ground-based radar, and airborne weather radar. When these aids are required, the cockpit arrangement must be such that all controls are accessible to each pilot seated at his duty station.
5. Training programs. The initial training program for Doppler Radar and Inertial Navigation Systems must include the following:
(a) Duties and responsibilities of flight crewmembers, dispatchers, and maintenance personnel.
(b) For pilots, instruction in the following:
(1) Theory and procedures, limitations, detection of malfunctions, preflight and inflight testing, and cross-checking methods.
(2) The use of computers, an explanation of all systems, compass limitations at high latitudes, a review of navigation, flight planning, and applicable meteorology.
(3) The methods for updating by means of reliable fixes.
(4) The actual plotting of fixes.
(c) Abnormal and emergency procedures.
6. Equipment accuracy and reliability. (a) Each Inertial Navigation System must meet the following accuracy requirements, as appropriate:
(1) For flights up to 10 hours' duration, no greater than 2 nautical miles per hour of circular error on 95 percent of system flights completed is permitted.
(2) For flights over 10 hours' duration, a tolerance of ±20 miles cross-track and ±25 miles along-track on 95 percent of system flights completed is permitted.
(b) Compass heading information to the Doppler Radar must be maintained to an accuracy of ±1° and total system deviations must not exceed 2°. When free gyro techniques are used, procedures shall be utilized to ensure that an equivalent level of heading accuracy and total system deviation is attained.
(c) Each Doppler Radar System must meet accuracy requirements of ±20 miles cross-track and ±25 miles along-track for 95 percent of the system flights completed. Updating is permitted.
A system that does not meet the requirements of this section will be considered a failed system.7. Evaluation program. (a) Approval by evaluation must be requested as a part of the application for operational approval of a Doppler Radar or Inertial Navigation System.
(b) The applicant must provide sufficient flights which show to the satisfaction of the Administrator the applicant's ability to use cockpit navigation in his operation.
(c) The Administrator bases his evaluation on the following:
(1) Adequacy of operational procedures.
(2) Operational accuracy and reliability of equipment and feasibility of the system with regard to proposed operations.
(3) Availability of terminal, gateway, area, and en route ground-based aids, if required, to support the self-contained system.
(4) Acceptability of cockpit workload.
(5) Adequacy of flight crew qualifications.
(6) Adequacy of maintenance training and availability of spare parts.
After successful completion of evaluation demonstrations, FAA approval is indicated by issuance of amended operations specifications and en route flight procedures defining the new operation. Approval is limited to those operations for which the adequacy of the equipment and the feasibility of cockpit navigation has been satisfactorily demonstrated.Appendix H - Appendix H to Part 121—Advanced Simulation
This appendix prescribes criteria for use of Level B or higher FFSs to satisfy the inflight requirements of Appendices E and F of this part and the requirements of § 121.439. The criteria in this appendix are in addition to the FFS approval requirements in § 121.407. Each FFS used under this appendix must be approved as a Level B, C, or D FFS, as appropriate.
Advanced Simulation Training ProgramFor a certificate holder to conduct Level C or D training under this appendix all required FFS instruction and checks must be conducted under an advanced simulation training program approved by the Administrator for the certificate holder. This program must also ensure that all instructors and check airmen used in Appendix H training and checking are highly qualified to provide the training required in the training program. The advanced simulation training program must include the following:
1. The certificate holder's initial, transition, conversion, upgrade, and recurrent FFS training programs and its procedures for re-establishing recency of experience in the FFS.
2. How the training program will integrate Level B, C, and D FFSs with other FSTDs to maximize the total training, checking, and certification functions.
3. Documentation that each instructor and check airman has served for at least 1 year in that capacity in a certificate holder's approved program or has served for at least 1 year as a pilot in command or second in command in an airplane of the group in which that pilot is instructing or checking.
4. A procedure to ensure that each instructor and check airman actively participates in either an approved regularly scheduled line flying program as a flightcrew member or an approved line observation program in the same airplane type for which that person is instructing or checking.
5. A procedure to ensure that each instructor and check airman is given a minimum of 4 hours of training each year to become familiar with the certificate holder's advanced simulation training program, or changes to it, and to emphasize their respective roles in the program. Training for instructors and check airmen must include training policies and procedures, instruction methods and techniques, operation of FFS controls (including environmental and trouble panels), limitations of the FFS, and minimum equipment required for each course of training.
6. A special Line-Oriented Flight Training (LOFT) program to facilitate the transition from the FFS to line flying. This LOFT program must consist of at least a 4-hour course of training for each flightcrew. It also must contain at least two representative flight segments of the certificate holder's operations. One of the flight segments must contain strictly normal operating procedures from push back at one airport to arrival at another. Another flight segment must contain training in appropriate abnormal and emergency flight operations. After March 12, 2019, the LOFT must provide an opportunity for the pilot to demonstrate workload management and pilot monitoring skills.
FFS Training, Checking and Qualification Permitted 1. Level B FFSa. Recent experience (§ 121.439).
b. Training in night takeoffs and landings (Appendix E of this part).
c. Except for EFVS operations, landings in a proficiency check (Appendix F of this part).
2. Level C and D FFSa. Recent experience (§ 121.439).
b. All pilot flight training and checking required by this part except the following:
i. The operating experience, operating cycles, and consolidation of knowledge and skills requirements of § 121.434;
ii. The line check required by § 121.440; and
iii. The visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane required by appendices E and F.
c. The practical test requirements of § 61.153(h) of this chapter, except the visual inspection of the exterior and interior of the airplane.
- Appendixes I-J to Part 121 [Reserved]
Appendix K - Appendix K to Part 121—Performance Requirements for Certain Turbopropeller Powered Airplanes
1. Applicability. This appendix specifies requirements for the following turbopropeller powered airplanes that must comply with the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in §§ 121.189 through 121.197:
a. After December 20, 2010, each airplane manufactured before March 20, 1997 and type certificated in the:
i. Normal category before July 1, 1970, and meets special conditions issued by the Administrator for airplanes intended for use in operations under part 135 of this chapter.
ii. Normal category before July 19, 1970, and meets the additional airworthiness standards in SFAR No. 23 of 14 CFR part 23.
iii. Normal category, and complies with the additional airworthiness standards in appendix A of part 135 of this chapter.
iv. Normal category, and complies with section 1.(a) or 1.(b) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21.
b. After March 20, 1997, each airplane:
i. Type certificated prior to March 29, 1995, in the commuter category.
ii. Manufactured on or after March 20, 1997, and that was type certificated in the normal category, and complies with the requirements described in paragraphs 1.a.i through iii of this appendix.
2. Background. Sections 121.157 and 121.173(b) require that the airplanes operated under this part and described in paragraph 1 of this appendix, comply with the Airplane Performance Operating Limitations in §§ 121.189 through 121.197. Airplanes described in § 121.157(f) and paragraph 1.a of this appendix must comply on and after December 20, 2010. Airplanes described in § 121.157(e) and paragraph 1.b of this appendix must comply on and after March 20, 1997. (Airplanes type certificated in the normal category, and in accordance with SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21, as described in paragraph 1.a.iv of this appendix, may not be produced after October 17, 1991.)
3. References. Unless otherwise specified, references in this appendix to sections of part 23 of this chapter are to those sections of 14 CFR part 23, as amended by Amendment No. 23-45 (August 6, 1993, 58 FR 42156).
Performance4. Interim Airplane Performance Operating Limitations.
a. Until December 20, 2010, airplanes described in paragraph 1.a of this appendix may continue to comply with the requirements in subpart I of part 135 and § 135.181(a)(2) of this chapter that apply to small, nontransport category airplanes.
b. Until March 20, 1997, airplanes described in paragraph 1.b.i of this appendix may continue to comply with the requirements in subpart I of part 135 of this chapter that apply to commuter category airplanes.
5. Final Airplane Performance Operating Limitations.
a. Through an amended type certification program or a supplemental type certification program, each airplane described in paragraph 1.a and 1.b.ii of this appendix must be shown to comply with the commuter category performance requirements specified in this appendix, which are included in part 23 of this chapter. Each new revision to a current airplane performance operating limitation for an airplane that is or has been demonstrated to comply, must also be approved by the Administrator. An airplane approved to the requirements of section 1.(b) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21, as described in paragraph 1.a.iv of this appendix, and that has been demonstrated to comply with the additional requirements of section 4.(c) of SFAR No. 41 of 14 CFR part 21 and International Civil Aviation Organization Annex 8 (available from the FAA, 800 Independence Avenue SW., Washington, DC 20591), will be considered to be in compliance with the commuter category performance requirements.
b. Each turbopropeller powered airplane subject to this appendix must be demonstrated to comply with the airplane performance operating limitation requirements of this chapter specified as follows:
i. Section 23.45 Performance General.
ii. Section 23.51 Takeoff.
iii. Section 23.53 Takeoff speeds.
iv. Section 23.55 Accelerate stop distance.
v. Section 23.57 Takeoff path.
vi. Section 23.59 Takeoff distance and takeoff run.
vii. Section 23.61 Takeoff flight path.
viii. Section 23.65 Climb: All engines operating.
ix. Section 23.67 Climb: one engine inoperative.
x. Section 23.75 Landing.
xi. Section 23.77 Balked landing.
xii. Sections 23.1581 through 23.1589 Airplane flight manual and approved manual material.
6. Operation. After compliance with the final airplane performance operating limitations requirements has been demonstrated and added to the Airplane Flight Manual performance data of the affected airplane, that airplane must be operated in accordance with the performance limitations of §§ 121.189 through 121.197.
Appendix L - Appendix L to Part 121—Type Certification Regulations Made Previously Effective
Appendix L lists regulations in this part that require compliance with standards contained in superseded type certification regulations that continue to apply to certain transport category airplanes. The tables set out citations to current CFR section, applicable aircraft, superseded type certification regulation and applicable time periods, and the CFR edition and
| Part 121 section | Applicable aircraft | Provisions: CFR/FR references | § 121.312(a)(1)(i) | Transport category; or nontransport category type certificated before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; manufactured prior to August 20, 1990 | Heat release rate testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995, and amended by Amdt. 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995.
Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a-1) in effect August 20, 1986: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1986. | § 121.312(a)(1)(ii) | Transport category; or nontransport category type certificated before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; manufactured after August 19, 1990 | Heat release rate and smoke testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995, and amended by Amdt. 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995.
Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a-1) in effect September 26, 1988: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1988, and amended by Amdt. 25-66, 53 FR 32584, August 25, 1988 | § 121.312(a)(2)(i) | Transport category; or nontransport category type certificate before January 1, 1965; application for type certificate filed prior to May 1, 1972; substantially complete replacement of cabin interior on or after May 1, 1972 | Provisions of 14 CFR 25.853 in effect on April 30, 1972: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1972. | § 121.312(a)(3)(i) | Transport category type certificated after January 1, 1958; nontransport category type certificated after January 1, 1958, but before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after March 6, 1995 | Heat release rate testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995; and amended by 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995.
Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a-1) in effect August 20, 1986: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1986. | § 121.312(a)(3)(ii) | Transport category type certificated after January 1, 1958; nontransport category type certificated after January 1, 1958, but before January 1, 1965; passenger capacity of 20 or more; substantially complete replacement of the cabin interior on or after August 20, 1990 | Heat release rate and smoke testing. 14 CFR 25.853(d) in effect March 6, 1995; 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995; and amended by 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995.
Formerly 14 CFR § 25.853(a-1) in effect September 26, 1988: CFR, Title 14, Parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1988, and amended by 25-66, 53 FR 32584, August 25, 1988. | § 121.312(b) (1) and (2) | Transport category airplane type certificated after January 1, 1958; Nontransport category airplane type certificated after December 31, 1964 | Seat cushions. 14 CFR 25.853(c) effective on November 26, 1984: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1984, and amended by \n25-59, 49 FR 43188, October 26, 1984. | § 121.312(c) | Airplane type certificated in accordance with SFAR No. 41; maximum certificated takeoff weight in excess of 12,500 pounds | Compartment interior requirements. 14 CFR 25.853(a) in effect March 6, 1995: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1995, and amended by 25-83, 60 FR 6623, February 2, 1995.
Formerly 14 CFR 25.853(a), (b-1), (b-2), and (b-3) in effect on September 26, 1978: 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised as of January 1, 1978. | § 121.314(a) | Transport category airplanes type certificated after January 1, 1958 | Class C or D cargo or baggage compartment definition, 14 CFR 25.857 in effect on June 16, 1986, 14 CFR parts 1 to 59, Revised 1/1/97, and amended by Amendment 25-60, 51 FR 18243, May 16, 1986. |
|---|
Appendix M - Appendix M to Part 121—Airplane Flight Recorder Specifications
The recorded values must meet the designated range, resolution and accuracy requirements during static and dynamic conditions. Dynamic condition means the parameter is experiencing change at the maximum rate attainable, including the maximum rate of reversal. All data recorded must be correlated in time to within one second.
| Parameters | Range | Accuracy (sensor input) | Seconds per sampling interval | Resolution | Remarks | 1. Time or relative times counts. 1 | 24 Hrs, 0 to 4095 | ±0.125% per hour | 4 | 1 sec | UTC time preferred when available. Count increments each 4 seconds of system operation. | 2. Pressure Altitude | −1000 ft to max certificated altitude of aircraft. + 5000 ft | ±100 to ±700 ft (see table, TSO C124a or TSO C51a) | 1 | 5′ to 35′ | Data should be obtained from the air data computer when practicable. | 3. Indicated airspeed or Calibrated airspeed | 50 KIAS or minimum value to Max V | ±5% and ±3% | 1 | 1 kt | Data should be obtained from the air data computer when practicable. | 4. Heading (Primary flight crew reference) | 0-360° and Discrete “true” or “mag” | ±2° | 1 | 0.5° | When true or magnetic heading can be selected as the primary heading reference, a discrete indicating selection must be recorded. | 5. Normal acceleration (vertical) 9 | −3g to + 6g | ±1% of max range excluding datum error of ±5% | 0.125 | 0.004g | 6. Pitch Attitude | ±75° | ±2° | 1 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.5° | A sampling rate of 0.25 is recommended. | 7. Roll attitude 2 | ±180° | ±2° | 1 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.5 | A sampling rate of 0.5 is recommended. | 8. Manual Radio Transmitter Keying or CVR/DFDR synchronization reference | On-Off (Discrete)
None | 1 | Preferably each crew member but one discrete acceptable for all transmission provided the CVR/FDR system complies with TSO C124a CVR synchronization requirements (paragraph 4.2.1 ED-55). | 9. Thrust/power on each engine—primary flight crew reference | Full range forward | ±2% | 1 (per engine) | 0.3% of full range | Sufficient parameters (e.g. EPR, N1 or Torque, NP) as appropriate to the particular engine being recorded to determine power in forward and reverse thrust, including potential overspeed condition. | 10. Autopilot Engagement | Discrete “on” or “off” | 1 | 11. Longitudinal Acceleration | ±1g | ±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5% | 0.25 | 0.004g | 12a. Pitch control(s) position (nonfly-by-wire systems). 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.5% of full range | For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable. | 12b. Pitch control(s) position (fly-by-wire systems). 3 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.2% of full range | 13a. Lateral control position(s) (nonfly-by-wire). 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.2% of full range | For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable. | 13b. Lateral control position(s) (fly-by-wire). 4 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.2% of full range. | 14a. Yaw control position(s) (nonfly-by-wire). 5 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 | 0.3% of full range | For airplanes that have a flight control breakaway capability that allows either pilot to operate the controls independently, record both control inputs. The control inputs may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5. | 14b. Yaw control position(s) (fly-by-wire). 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 | 0.2% of full range | 15. Pitch control surface(s) position. 6 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.3% of full range | For airplanes fitted with multiple or split surfaces, a suitable combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately once per second to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable. | 16. Lateral control surface(s) position. 7 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 or 0.25 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.3% of full range | A suitable combination of surface position sensors is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately to produce the sampling interval of 0.5 or 0.25, as applicable. | 17. Yaw control surface(s) position. 8 18 | Full Range | ±2° unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 0.5 | 0.2% of full range | For airplanes with multiple or split surfaces, a suitable combination of surface position sensors is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately. The control surfaces may be sampled alternately to produce the sampling interval of 0.5. | 18. Lateral Acceleration | ±1g | ±1.5% max. range excluding datum error of ±5% | 0.25 | 0.004g | 19. Pitch Trim Surface Position | Full Range | ±3° Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required | 1 | 0.6% of full range | 20. Trailing Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection. 10 | Full Range or Each Position (discrete) | ±3° or as Pilot's indicator | 2 | 0.5% of full range | Flap position and cockpit control may each be sampled at 4 second intervals, to give a data point every 2 seconds. | 21. Leading Edge Flap or Cockpit Control Selection. 11 | Full Range or Each Discrete Position | ±3° or as Pilot's indicator and sufficient to determine each discrete position | 2 | 0.5% of full range | Left and right sides, or flap position and cockpit control may each be sampled at 4 second intervals, so as to give a data point every 2 seconds. | 22. Each Thrust Reverser Position (or equivalent for propeller airplane) | Stowed, In Transit, and Reverse (Discrete) | 1 (per engine) | Turbo-jet—2 discretes enable the 3 states to be determined.
Turbo-prop—discrete. | 23. Ground spoiler position or brake selection 12 | Full range or each position (discrete) | ±2° Unless higher accuracy uniquely required | 1 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.5% of full range | 24. Outside Air Temperature or Total Air Temperature. 13 | −50 °C to + 90 °C | ±2 °C | 2 | 0.3 °C | 25. Autopilot/Autothrottle/AFCS Mode and Engagement Status | A suitable combination of discretes | 1 | Discretes should show which systems are engaged and which primary modes are controlling the flight path and speed of the aircraft. | 26. Radio Altitude 14 | −20 ft to 2,500 ft | ±2 ft or ±3% whichever is greater below 500 ft and ±5% above 500 ft | 1 | 1 ft + 5% above 500 ft | For autoland/category 3 operations. Each radio altimeter should be recorded, but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second. | 27. Localizer Deviation, MLS Azimuth, or GPS Latitude Deviation | ±400 Microamps or available sensor range as installed
±62° | As installed ±3% recommended | 1 | 0.3% of full range | For autoland/category 3 operations. Each system should be recorded but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second. It is not necessary to record ILS and MLS at the same time, only the approach aid in use need be recorded. | 28. Glideslope Deviation, MLS Elevation, or GPS Vertical Deviation | ±400 Microamps or available sensor range as installed
0.9 to + 30° | As installed + /3−3% recommended | 1 | 0.3% of full range | For autoland/category 3 operations. Each system should be recorded but arranged so that at least one is recorded each second. It is not necessary to record ILS and MLS at the same time, only the approach aid in use need be recorded. | 29. Marker Beacon Passage | Discrete “on” or “off” | 1 | A single discrete is acceptable for all markers. | 30. Master Warning | Discrete | 1 | Record the master warning and record each “red” warning that cannot be determined from other parameters or from the cockpit voice recorder. | 31. Air/ground sensor (primary airplane system reference nose or main gear) | Discrete “air” or “ground” | 1 (0.25 recommended) | 32. Angle of Attack (If measured directly) | As installed | As installed | 2 or 0.5 for airplanes operated under § 121.344(f) | 0.3% of full range | If left and right sensors are available, each may be recorded at 4 or 1 second intervals, as appropriate, so as to give a data point at 2 seconds or 0.5 second, as required. | 33. Hydraulic Pressure Low, Each System | Discrete or available sensor range, “low” or “normal” | ±5% | 2 | 0.5% of full range | 34. Groundspeed | As Installed | Most Accurate Systems Installed | 1 | 0.2% of full range | 35. GPWS (ground proximity warning system) | Discrete “warning” or “off” | 1 | A suitable combination of discretes unless recorder capacity is limited in which case a single discrete for all modes is acceptable. | 36. Landing Gear Position or Landing gear cockpit control selection | Discrete | 4 | A suitable combination of discretes should be recorded. | 37. Drift Angle. 15 | As installed | As installed | 4 | 0.1° | 38. Wind Speed and Direction | As installed | As installed | 4 | 1 knot, and 1.0° | 39. Latitude and Longitude | As installed | As installed | 4 | 0.002°, or as installed | Provided by the Primary Navigation System Reference. Where capacity permits Latitude/longitude resolution should be 0.0002°. | 40. Stick shaker and pusher activation | Discrete(s) “on” or “off” | 1 | A suitable combination of discretes to determine activation. | 41. Windshear Detection | Discrete “warning” or “off” | 1 | 42. Throttle/power Leverl position. 16 | Full Range | ±2% | 1 for each lever | 2% of full range | For airplanes with non-mechanically linked cockpit engine controls. | 43. Additional Engine Parameters | As installed | As installed | Each engine each second | 2% of full range | Where capacity permits, the preferred priority is indicated vibration level, N2, EGT, Fuel Flow, Fuel Cut-off lever position and N3, unless engine manufacturer recommends otherwise. | 44. Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) | Discretes | As installed | 1 | A suitable combination of discretes should be recorded to determine the status of—Combined Control, Vertical Control, Up Advisory, and Down Advisory. (ref. ARINC Characteristic 735 Attachment 6E, TCAS VERTICAL RA DATA OUTPUT WORD.) | 45. DME 1 and 2 Distance | 0-200 NM | As installed | 4 | 1 NM | 1 mile | 46. Nav 1 and 2 Selected Frequency | Full Range | As installed | 4 | Sufficient to determine selected frequency | 47. Selected barometric setting | Full Range | ±5% | (1 per 64 sec.) | 0.2% of full range | 48. Selected Altitude | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 100 ft | 49. Selected speed | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 1 knot | 50. Selected Mach | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | .01 | 51. Selected vertical speed | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 100 ft/min | 52. Selected heading | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 1° | 53. Selected flight path | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 1° | 54. Selected decision height | Full Range | ±5% | 64 | 1 ft | 55. EFIS display format | Discrete(s) | 4 | Discretes should show the display system status (e.g., off, normal, fail, composite, sector, plan, nav aids, weather radar, range, copy. | 56. Multi-function/Engine Alerts Display format | Discrete(s) | 4 | Discretes should show the display system status (e.g., off, normal, fail, and the identity of display pages for emergency procedures, need not be recorded. | 57. Thrust command. 17 | Full Range | ±2% | 2 | 2% of full range | 58. Thrust target | Full Range | ±2% | 4 | 2% of full range | 59. Fuel quantity in CG trim tank | Full Range | ±5% | (1 per 64 sec.) | 1% of full range | 60. Primary Navigation System Reference | Discrete GPS, INS, VOR/DME, MLS, Localizer Glideslope | 4 | A suitable combination of discretes to determine the Primary Navigation System reference. | 61. Ice Detection | Discrete “ice” or “no ice” | 4 | 62. Engine warning each engine vibration | Discrete | 1 | 63. Engine warning each engine over temp | Discrete | 1 | 64. Engine warning each engine oil pressure low | Discrete | 1 | 65. Engine warning each engine over speed | Discrete | 1 | 66. Yaw Trim Surface Position | Full Range | ±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required | 2 | 0.3% of full range | 67. Roll Trim Surface Position | Full Range | ±3% Unless Higher Accuracy Uniquely Required | 2 | 0.3% of full range | 68. Brake Pressure (left and right) | As installed | ±5% | 1 | To determine braking effort applied by pilots or by autobrakes. | 69. Brake Pedal Application (left and right) | Discrete or Analog “applied” or “off” | ±5% (Analog) | 1 | To determine braking applied by pilots. | 70. Yaw or sideslip angle | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 0.5° | 71. Engine bleed valve position | Discrete “open” or “closed” | 4 | 72. De-icing or anti-icing system selection | Discrete “on” or “off” | 4 | 73. Computed center of gravity | Full Range | ±5% | (1 per 64 sec.) | 1% of full range | 74. AC electrical bus status | Discrete “power” or “off” | 4 | Each bus. | 75. DC electrical bus status | Discrete “power” or “off” | 4 | Each bus. | 76 APU bleed valve position | Discrete “open” or “closed” | 4 | 77. Hydraulic Pressure (each system) | Full range | ±5% | 2 | 100 psi | 78. Loss of cabin pressure | Discrete “loss” or “normal” | 1 | 79. Computer failure (critical flight and engine control systems) | Discrete “fail” or “normal” | 4 | 80. Heads-up display (when an information source is installed) | Discrete(s) “on” or “off” | 4 | 81. Para-visual display (when an information source is installed) | Discrete(s) “on” or “off” | 82. Cockpit trim control input position—pitch | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 0.2% of full range | Where mechanical means for control inputs are not available, cockpit display trim positions should be recorded. | 83. Cockpit trim control input position—roll | Full Range | ±5% | 1 | 0.7% of full range | Where mechanical means for control inputs are not available, cockpit display trim position should be recorded. | 84. Cockpit trim control input position—yaw | Full range | ±5% | 1 | 0.3% of full range | Where mechanical means for control input are not available, cockpit display trim positions should be recorded. | 85. Trailing edge flap and cockpit flap control position | Full Range | ±5% | 2 | 0.5% of full range | Trailing edge flaps and cockpit flap control position may each be sampled alternately at 4 second intervals to provide a sample each 0.5 second. | 86. Leading edge flap and cockpit flap control position | Full Range or Discrete | ±5% | 1 | 0.5% of full range | 87. Ground spoiler position and speed brake selection | Full range or discrete | ±5% | 0.5 | 0.3% of full range | 88. All cockpit flight control input forces (control wheel, control column, rudder pedal) 18 19 | Full range
Control wheel ±70 lbs Control column ±85 lbs Rudder pedal ±165 lbs | ±5% | 1 | 0.3% of full range | For fly-by-wire flight control systems, where flight control surface position is a function of the displacement of the control input device only, it is not necessary to record this parameter. For airplanes that have a flight control break away capability that allows either pilot to operate the control independently, record both control force inputs. The control force inputs may be sampled alternately once per 2 seconds to produce the sampling interval of 1. | 89. Yaw damper status | Discrete (on/off) | 0.5 | 90. Yaw damper command | Full range | As installed | 0.5 | 1% of full range | 91. Standby rudder valve status | Discrete | 0.5 |
|---|
1 For A300 B2/B4 airplanes, resolution = 6 seconds.
2 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.703°.
3 For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.275% (0.088°>0.064°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 2.20%(0.703°>0.064°).
4 For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 0.22% (0.088°>0.080°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.76% (0.703°>0.080°).
5 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.18% (0.703° >0.120°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.
6 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.783% (0.352°>0.090°).
7 For A330/A340 series airplanes, aileron resolution = 0.704% (0.352°>0.100°). For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
8 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.30% (0.176°>0.12°).
For A330/A340 series airplanes, seconds per sampling interval = 1.
9 For B-717 series airplanes, resolution = .005g. For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, resolution = .007g.
10 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250°>0.120°).
11 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 1.05% (0.250°>0.120°). For A300 B2/B4 series airplanes, resolution = 0.92% (0.230°>0.125°).
12 For A330/A340 series airplanes, spoiler resolution = 1.406% (0.703°>0.100°).
13 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.5°C.
14 For Dassault F900C/F900EX airplanes, Radio altitude resolution = 1.25 ft.
15 For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution = 0.352 degrees.
16 For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, resolution = 4.32%. For A330/A340 series airplanes, resolution is 3.27% of full range for throttle lever angle (TLA); for reverse thrust, reverse throttle lever angle (RLA) resolution is nonlinear over the active reverse thrust range, which is 51.54 degrees to 96.14 degrees. The resolved element is 2.8 degrees uniformly over the entire active reverse thrust range, or 2.9% of the full range value of 96.14 degrees.
17 For A318/A319/A320/A321 series airplanes, with IAE engines, resolution = 2.58%.
18 For all aircraft manufactured on or after December 6, 2010, the seconds per sampling interval is 0.125. Each input must be recorded at this rate. Alternately sampling inputs (interleaving) to meet this sampling interval is prohibited.
19 For 737 model airplanes manufactured between August 19, 2000 and April 6, 2010: the seconds per sampling interval is 0.5 per control input; the remarks regarding the sampling rate do not apply; a single control wheel force transducer installed on the left cable control is acceptable provided the left and right control wheel positions also are recorded.
Appendix N - Appendix N to Part 121 [Reserved]
Appendix O - Appendix O to Part 121—Hazardous Materials Training Requirements For Certificate Holders
This appendix prescribes the requirements for hazardous materials training under part 121, subpart Z, and part 135, subpart K of this chapter. The training requirements for various categories of persons are defined by job function or responsibility. An “X” in a box under a category of persons indicates that the specified category must receive the noted training. All training requirements apply to direct supervisors as well as to persons actually performing the job function. Training requirements for certificate holders authorized in their operations specifications to transport hazardous materials (will-carry) are prescribed in Table 1. Those certificate holders with a prohibition in their operations specifications against carrying or handling hazardous materials (will-not-carry) must follow the curriculum prescribed in Table 2. The method of delivering the training will be determined by the certificate holder. The certificate holder is responsible for providing a method (may include email, telecommunication, etc.) to answer all questions prior to testing regardless of the method of instruction. The certificate holder must certify that a test has been completed satisfactorily to verify understanding of the regulations and requirements.
Table 1—Operators That Transport Hazardous Material—Will-Carry Certificate Holders
| Aspects of transport of hazardous materials by air with which they must be familiar, as a minimum
(See note 1) | Shippers
(See Note 2) Will-carry | Operators and ground-handling agent's staff accepting hazardous materials
(See Note 3) Will-carry | Operators and ground-handling agents staff responsible for the handling, storage, and loading of cargo and baggage
Will-carry | Passenger-handling staff
Will-carry | Flight crew members and load planners
Will-carry | Crew members
(other than flight crew members) Will-carry | General philosophy | X | X | X | X | X | X | Limitations | X | X | X | X | X | X | General requirements for shippers | X | X | Classification | X | X | List of hazardous materials | X | X | X | General packing requirements | X | X | Labeling and marking | X | X | X | X | X | X | Hazardous materials transport document and other relevant documentation | X | X | Acceptance procedures | X | Recognition of undeclared hazardous materials | X | X | X | X | X | X | Storage and loading procedures | X | X | X | Pilots' notification | X | X | X | Provisions for passengers and crew | X | X | X | X | X | Emergency procedures | X | X | X | X | X | X |
|---|
Note 1. Depending on the responsibilities of the person, the aspects of training to be covered may vary from those shown in the table.
Note 2. When a person offers a consignment of hazmat, including COMAT, for or on behalf of the certificate holder, then the person must be trained in the certificate holder's training program and comply with shipper responsibilities and training. If offering goods on another certificate holder's equipment, the person must be trained in compliance with the training requirements in 49 CFR. All shippers of hazmat must be trained under 49 CFR. The shipper functions in 49 CFR mirror the training aspects that must be covered for any shipper offering hazmat for transport.
Note 3. When an operator, its subsidiary, or an agent of the operator is undertaking the responsibilities of acceptance staff, such as the passenger handling staff accepting small parcel cargo, the certificate holder, its subsidy, or the agent must be trained in the certificate holder's training program and comply with the acceptance staff training requirements.
Table 2—Operators That Do Not Transport Hazardous Materials—Will-Not-Carry Certificate Holders
| Aspects of transport of hazardous materials by air with which they must be familiar, as a minimum
(See Note 1) | Shippers
(See Note 2) Will-not-carry | Operators and ground-handling agent's staff accepting cargo other than hazardous materials
(See Note 3) Will-not-carry | Operators and ground-handling agents staff responsible for the handling, storage, and loading of cargo and baggage
Will-not-carry | Passenger-handling staff
Will-not-carry | Flight crew members and load planners
Will-not-carry | Crew members (other than flight crew members)
Will-not-carry | General philosophy | X | X | X | X | X | X | Limitations | X | X | X | X | X | X | General requirements for shippers | X | Classification | X | List of hazardous materials | X | General packing requirements | X | Labeling and marking | X | X | X | X | X | X | Hazardous materials transport document and other relevant documentation | X | X | Acceptance procedures | Recognition of undeclared hazardous materials | X | X | X | X | X | X | Storage and loading procedures | Pilots' notification | Provisions for passengers and Crew | X | X | X | X | X | Emergency procedures | X | X | X | X | X | X |
|---|
Note 1—Depending on the responsibilities of the person, the aspects of training to be covered may vary from those shown in the table.
Note 2—When a person offers a consignment of hazmat, including COMAT, for air transport for or on behalf of the certificate holder, then that person must be properly trained. All shippers of hazmat must be trained under 49 CFR. The shipper functions in 49 CFR mirror the training aspects that must be covered for any shipper, including a will-not-carry certificate holder offering dangerous goods for transport, with the exception of recognition training. Recognition training is a separate FAA requirement in the certificate holder's training program.
Note 3—When an operator, its subsidiary, or an agent of the operator is undertaking the responsibilities of acceptance staff, such as the passenger handling staff accepting small parcel cargo, the certificate holder, its subsidiary, or the agent must be trained in the certificate holder's training program and comply with the acceptance staff training requirements.
Appendix P - Appendix P to Part 121—Requirements for ETOPS and Polar Operations
The FAA approves ETOPS in accordance with the requirements and limitations in this appendix.
Section I. ETOPS Approvals: Airplanes with Two engines.
(a) Propulsion system reliability for ETOPS. (1) Before the FAA grants ETOPS operational approval, the operator must be able to demonstrate the ability to achieve and maintain the level of propulsion system reliability, if any, that is required by § 21.4(b)(2) of this chapter for the ETOPS-approved airplane-engine combination to be used.
(2) Following ETOPS operational approval, the operator must monitor the propulsion system reliability for the airplane-engine combination used in ETOPS, and take action as required by § 121.374(i) for the specified IFSD rates.
(b) 75 Minutes ETOPS—(1) Caribbean/Western Atlantic Area. The FAA grants approvals to conduct
ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 75 minutes on Western Atlantic/Caribbean area routes as follows:
(i) The FAA reviews the airplane-engine combination to ensure the absence of factors that could prevent safe operations. The airplane-engine combination need not be type-design-approved for ETOPS; however, it must have sufficient favorable experience to demonstrate to the Administrator a level of reliability appropriate for 75-minute ETOPS.
(ii) The certificate holder must comply with the requirements of § 121.633 for time-limited system planning.
(iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374, except that a pre-departure service check before departure of the return flight is not required.
(2) Other Areas. The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 75 minutes on other than Western Atlantic/Caribbean area routes as follows:
(i) The FAA reviews the airplane-engine combination to ensure the absence of factors that could prevent safe operations. The airplane-engine combination need not be type-design-approved for ETOPS; however, it must have sufficient favorable experience to demonstrate to the Administrator a level of reliability appropriate for 75-minute ETOPS.
(ii) The certificate holder must comply with the requirements of § 121.633 for time-limited system planning.
(iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374.
(v) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL in its operations specifications for 120-minute ETOPS.
(c) 90-minutes ETOPS (Micronesia). The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 90 minutes on Micronesian area routes as follows:
(1) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design approved for ETOPS of at least 120-minutes.
(2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374, except that a pre-departure service check before departure of the return flight is not required.
(4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements in its operations specifications for 120-minute ETOPS.
(d) 120-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approvals to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 120 minutes as follows:
(1) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 120 minutes.
(2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374.
(4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for 120-minute ETOPS.
(e) 138-Minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 138 minutes as follows:
(1) Operators with 120-minute ETOPS approval. The FAA grants 138-minute ETOPS approval as an extension of an existing 120-minute ETOPS approval as follows:
(i) The authority may be exercised only for specific flights for which the 120-minute diversion time must be exceeded.
(ii) For these flight-by-flight exceptions, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS up to at least 120 minutes. The capability of the airplane's time-limited systems may not be less than 138 minutes calculated in accordance with § 121.633.
(iii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374.
(v) The certificate holder must comply with minimum equipment list (MEL) requirements in its operations specifications for “beyond 120 minutes ETOPS”. Operators without a “beyond 120-minute ETOPS” MEL may apply through their responsible Flight Standards office for a modified MEL which satisfies the master MEL policy for system/component relief in ETOPS beyond 120 minutes.
(vi) The certificate holder must conduct training for maintenance, dispatch, and flight crew personnel regarding differences between 138-minute ETOPS authority and its previously-approved 120-minute ETOPS authority.
(2) Operators with existing 180-minute ETOPS approval. The FAA grants approvals to conduct 138-minute ETOPS (without the limitation in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of section I of this appendix) to certificate holders with existing 180-minute ETOPS approval as follows:
(i) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes.
(ii) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(iii) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374.
(iv) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for “beyond 120 minutes ETOPS.”
(v) The certificate holder must conduct training for maintenance, dispatch and flight crew personnel for differences between 138-minute ETOPS diversion approval and its previously approved 180-minute ETOPS diversion authority.
(f) 180-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with diversion times up to 180 minutes as follows:
(1) For these operations the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes.
(2) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(3) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374.
(4) The certificate holder must comply with the MEL requirements for “beyond 120 minutes ETOPS.”
(g) Greater than 180-minute ETOPS. The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS greater than 180 minutes. The following are requirements for all operations greater than 180 minutes.
(1) The FAA grants approval only to certificate holders with existing 180-minute ETOPS operating authority for the airplane-engine combination to be operated.
(2) The certificate holder must have previous ETOPS experience satisfactory to the Administrator.
(3) In selecting ETOPS Alternate Airports, the operator must make every effort to plan ETOPS with maximum diversion distances of 180 minutes or less, if possible. If conditions necessitate using an ETOPS Alternate Airport beyond 180 minutes, the route may be flown only if the requirements for the specific operating area in paragraph (h) or (i) of section I of this appendix are met.
(4) The certificate holder must inform the flight crew each time an airplane is proposed for dispatch for greater than 180 minutes and tell them why the route was selected.
(5) In addition to the equipment specified in the certificate holder's MEL for 180-minute ETOPS, the following systems must be operational for dispatch:
(i) The fuel quantity indicating system.
(ii) The APU (including electrical and pneumatic supply and operating to the APU's designed capability).
(iii) The auto throttle system.
(iv) The communication system required by § 121.99(d) or § 121.122(c), as applicable.
(v) One-engine-inoperative auto-land capability, if flight planning is predicated on its use.
(6) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
(7) The certificate holder must comply with the maintenance program requirements of § 121.374.
(h) 207-minute ETOPS in the North Pacific Area of Operations. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times up to 207 minutes in the North Pacific Area of Operations as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes for reasons such as political or military concerns; volcanic activity; temporary airport conditions; and airport weather below dispatch requirements or other weather related events.
(2) The nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airport within 207 minutes diversion time must be specified in the dispatch or flight release.
(3) In conducting such a flight the certificate holder must consider Air Traffic Service's preferred track.
(4) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS of at least 180 minutes. The approved time for the airplane's most limiting ETOPS significant system and most limiting cargo-fire suppression time for those cargo and baggage compartments required by regulation to have fire-suppression systems must be at least 222 minutes.
(5) The certificate holder must track how many times 207-minute authority is used.
(i) 240-minute ETOPS in the North Polar Area, in the area north of the NOPAC, and in the Pacific Ocean north of the equator. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct 240-minute ETOPS authority with maximum diversion times in the North Polar Area, in the area north of the NOPAC area, and the Pacific Ocean area north of the equator as an extension to 180-minute ETOPS authority to be used on an exception basis. This exception may be used only on a flight-by-flight basis when an ETOPS Alternate Airport is not available within 180 minutes. In that case, the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airport within 240 minutes diversion time must be specified in the dispatch or flight release.
(2) This exception may be used in the North Polar Area and in the area north of NOPAC only in extreme conditions particular to these areas such as volcanic activity, extreme cold weather at en-route airports, airport weather below dispatch requirements, temporary airport conditions, and other weather related events. The criteria used by the certificate holder to decide that extreme weather precludes using an airport must be established by the certificate holder, accepted by the FAA, and published in the certificate holder's manual for the use of dispatchers and pilots.
(3) This exception may be used in the Pacific Ocean area north of the equator only for reasons such as political or military concern, volcanic activity, airport weather below dispatch requirements, temporary airport conditions and other weather related events.
(4) The airplane-engine combination must be type design approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes.
(j) 240-minute ETOPS in areas South of the equator. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with maximum diversion times of up to 240 minutes in the following areas:
(i) Pacific oceanic areas between the U.S. West coast and Australia, New Zealand and Polynesia.
(ii) South Atlantic oceanic areas.
(iii) Indian Ocean areas.
(iv) Oceanic areas between Australia and South America.
(2) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports along the planned route of flight.
(3) The airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes.
(k) ETOPS beyond 240 minutes. (1) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS with diversion times beyond 240 minutes for operations between specified city pairs on routes in the following areas:
(i) The Pacific oceanic areas between the U.S. west coast and Australia, New Zealand, and Polynesia;
(ii) The South Atlantic oceanic areas;
(iii) The Indian Oceanic areas; and
(iv) The oceanic areas between Australia and South America, and the South Polar Area.
(2) This approval is granted to certificate holders who have been operating under 180-minute or greater ETOPS authority for at least 24 consecutive months, of which at least 12 consecutive months must be under 240-minute ETOPS authority with the airplane-engine combination to be used.
(3) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS alternate or alternates along the planned route of flight.
(4) For these operations, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS greater than 180 minutes.
Section II. ETOPS Approval: Passenger-carrying Airplanes With More Than Two Engines.
(a) The FAA grants approval to conduct ETOPS, as follows:
(1) Except as provided in § 121.162, the airplane-engine combination must be type-design-approved for ETOPS.
(2) The operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports within 240 minutes diversion time (at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed under standard conditions in still air). If an ETOPS alternate is not available within 240 minutes, the operator must designate the nearest available ETOPS Alternate Airports along the planned route of flight.
(3) The MEL limitations for the authorized ETOPS diversion time apply.
(i) The Fuel Quantity Indicating System must be operational.
(ii) The communications systems required by § 121.99(d) or § 121.122(c) must be operational.
(4) The certificate holder must operate in accordance with the ETOPS authority as contained in its operations specifications.
Section III. Approvals for operations whose airplane routes are planned to traverse either the North Polar or South Polar Areas.
(a) Except for intrastate operations within the State of Alaska, no certificate holder may operate an aircraft in the North Polar Area or South Polar Area, unless authorized by the FAA.
(b) In addition to any of the applicable requirements of sections I and II of this appendix, the certificate holder's operations specifications must contain the following:
(1) The designation of airports that may be used for en-route diversions and the requirements the airports must meet at the time of diversion.
(2) Except for supplemental all-cargo operations, a recovery plan for passengers at designated diversion airports.
(3) A fuel-freeze strategy and procedures for monitoring fuel freezing.
(4) A plan to ensure communication capability for these operations.
(5) An MEL for these operations.
(6) A training plan for operations in these areas.
(7) A plan for mitigating crew exposure to radiation during solar flare activity.
(8) A plan for providing at least two cold weather anti-exposure suits in the aircraft, to protect crewmembers during outside activity at a diversion airport with extreme climatic conditions. The FAA may relieve the certificate holder from this requirement if the season of the year makes the equipment unnecessary.