Collapse to view only § 855.9 - Permit renewal.

§ 855.4 - Scope.

Air Force airfields are available for use by civil aircraft so far as such use does not interfere with military operations or jeopardize the military utility of the installation. Access will be granted on an equitable basis. Air Force requirements take precedence over authorized civil aircraft use. This part carries the force of US law, and exceptions are not authorized without prior approval from the Civil Aviation Branch, Bases and Units Division, Directorate of Operations, (HQ USAF/XOOBC), 1480 Air Force Pentagon, Washington DC 20330-1480. Proposed exceptions or waivers are evaluated as to current and future impact on Air Force policy and operations.

§ 855.5 - Responsibilities and authorities.

(a) The Air Force:

(1) Determines whether civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields is compatible with current and planned military activities.

(2) Normally authorizes civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields only in support of official Government business. If exceptional circumstances warrant, use for other purposes may be authorized.

(3) Acts as clearing authority for civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields, subject to the laws and regulations of the US, or to applicable international agreements (e.g., status of forces agreements) with the country in which the Air Force installation is located.

(4) Reserves the right to suspend any operation that is inconsistent with national defense interests or deemed not in the best interests of the Air Force.

(5) Will terminate authority to use an Air Force airfield if the:

(i) User's liability insurance is canceled.

(ii) User lands for other than the approved purpose of use or is otherwise in violation of this part or clearances and directives hereunder.

(6) Will not authorize use of Air Force airfields:

(i) In competition with civil airports by providing services or facilities that are already available in the private sector.

Note:

Use to conduct business with or for the US Government is not considered as competition with civil airports.

(ii) Solely for the convenience of passengers or aircraft operator.

(iii) Solely for transient aircraft servicing.

(iv) By civil aircraft that do not meet US Department of Transportation operating and airworthiness standards.

(v) That selectively promotes, benefits, or favors a specific commercial venture unless equitable consideration is available to all potential users in like circumstances.

(vi) For unsolicited proposals in procuring Government business or contracts.

(vii) Solely for customs-handling purposes.

(viii) When the air traffic control tower and base operations are closed or when a runway is restricted from use by all aircraft.

Note:

Requests for waiver of this provision must address liability responsibility, emergency response, and security.

(7) Will not authorize civil aircraft use of Air Force ramps located on civil airfields.

Note:

This section does not apply to use of aero club facilities located on Air Force land at civil airports, or civil aircraft chartered by US military departments and authorized use of terminal facilities and ground handling services on the Air Force ramp. Only the DD Form 2400, Civil Aircraft Certificate of Insurance, and DD Form 2402, Civil Aircraft Hold Harmless Agreement, are required for use of Air Force ramps on civil airfields.

(b) Civil aircraft operators must:

(1) Have an approved DD Form 2401, Civil Aircraft Landing Permit, before operating at Air Force airfields, except for emergency use and as indicated in paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(2)(iii)(E) of this section, and , and § 855.13(b)(1)(ii).

(2) Ensure that pavement load-bearing capacity will support the aircraft to be operated at the Air Force airfield.

(3) Ensure that aircraft to be operated at Air Force airfields are equipped with an operating two-way radio capable of communicating with the air traffic control tower.

(4) Obtain final approval for landing from the installation commander or a designated representative (normally base operations) at least 24 hours prior to arrival.

(5) Not assume that the landing clearance granted by an air traffic control tower facility is a substitute for either the approved civil aircraft landing permit or approval from the installation commander or a designated representative (normally base operations).

(6) Obtain required diplomatic or overflight clearance before operating in foreign airspace.

(7) Pay applicable costs and fees.

(8) File a flight plan before departing the Air Force airfield.

(c) The installation commander or a designated representative:

(1) Exercises administrative and security control over both the aircraft and passengers while on the installation.

(2) May require civil users to delay, reschedule, or reroute aircraft arrivals or departures to preclude interference with military activities.

(3) Cooperates with customs, immigration, health, and other public authorities in connection with civil aircraft arrival and departure.

(d) Decision Authority: The authority to grant civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields is vested in:

(1) Directorate of Operations, Bases and Units Division, Civil Aviation Branch (HQ USAF/XOOBC). HQ USAF/XOOBC may act on any request for civil aircraft use of an Air Force airfield. Decision authority for the following will not be delegated below HQ USAF:

(i) Use of multiple Air Force airfields except as designated in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.

(ii) Those designated as 2 under Approval Authority in Table 1 to this part.

(iii) Any unusual or unique purpose of use not specifically addressed in this part.

(2) Major Command, Field Operating Agency, Direct Reporting Unit, or Installation Commander. With the exception of those uses specifically delegated to another decision authority, major commands (MAJCOMs), field operating agencies (FOAs), direct reporting units (DRUs) and installation commanders or designated representatives have the authority to approve or disapprove civil aircraft landing permit applications (DD Forms 2400, Civil Aircraft Certificate of Insurance; 2401; Civil Aircraft Landing Permit, and 2402, Civil Aircraft Hold Harmless Agreement) at airfields for which they hold oversight responsibilities. Additionally, for expeditious handling of short notice requests, they may grant requests for one-time, official Government business flights that are in the best interest of the US Government and do not violate other provisions of this part. As a minimum, for one-time flights authorized under this section, the aircraft owner or operator must provide the decision authority with insurance verification and a completed DD Form 2402 before the aircraft operates into the Air Force airfield. Air Force authority to approve civil aircraft use of Air Force airfields on foreign soil may be limited. Commanders outside the US must be familiar with base rights agreements or other international agreements that may render inapplicable, in part or in whole, provisions of this part. Decision authority is delegated for specific purposes of use and or locations as follows:

(i) Commander, 611th Air Operations Group (AOG). The Commander, 611th AOG or a designated representative may approve commercial charters, on a case-by-case basis, at all Air Force airfields in Alaska, except Eielson and Elmendorf AFBs, if the purpose of the charter is to transport goods and or materials, such as an electric generator or construction materials for a community center, for the benefit of remote communities that do not have adequate civil airports.

(ii) Commander, Air Mobility Command (AMC). The Commander, AMC or a designated representative may approve permits that grant landing rights at Air Force airfields worldwide in support of AMC contracts.

(iii) US Defense Attache Office (USDAO). The USDAO, acting on behalf of HQ USAF/XOOBC, may grant a request for one-time landing rights at an Air Force airfield provided:

(A) The request is for official Government business of either the US or the country to which the USDAO is accredited.

(B) The Air Force airfield is located within the country to which the USDAO is accredited.

(C) Approval will not violate any agreement with the host country.

(D) The installation commander concurs.

(E) The USDAO has a properly completed DD Form 2402 on file and has verified that the insurance coverage meets the requirements of Table 2 to this part, before the aircraft operates into the Air Force airfield.

§ 855.6 - Aircraft exempt from the requirement for a civil aircraft landing permit.

(a) Any aircraft owned by:

(1) Any other US Government agency.

(2) US Air Force aero clubs established as prescribed in AFI 34-117, Air Force Aero Club Program, and AFMAN 3-132, Air Force Aero Club Operations 1 .

1 Copies of the publications are available, at cost, from the National Technical Information Service, U.S. Department of Commerce, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161.

Note:

This includes aircraft owned by individuals but leased by an Air Force aero club.

(3) Aero clubs of other US military services.

Note:

This includes aircraft owned by individuals but leased by Army or Navy aero clubs.

(4) A US State, County, Municipality, or other political subdivision, when operating to support official business at any level of Government.

(b) Any civil aircraft under:

(1) Lease or contractual agreement for exclusive US Government use on a long-term basis and operated on official business by or for a US Government agency; for example, the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), Department of the Interior, or Department of Energy.

Note:

The Government must hold liability responsibility for all damages or injury associated with operation of the aircraft.

(2) Lease or contractual agreement to the Air Force for Air Force Civil Air Patrol (CAP) liaison purposes and operated by an Air Force CAP liaison officer on official Air Force business.

(3) CAP control for a specific mission directed by the Air Force.

(4) Coast Guard control for a specific mission directed by the Coast Guard.

Note:

For identification purposes, the aircraft will be marked with a sticker near the port side door identifying it as a Coast Guard Auxiliary aircraft. The pilot will always be in uniform and normally have a copy of a Coast Guard Auxiliary Patrol Order. If the aircraft is operating under “verbal orders of the commander,” the pilot can provide the telephone number of the cognizant Coast Guard commander.

(5) Contractual agreement to any US, State, or local Government agency in support of operations involving safety of life or property as a result of a disaster.

(6) Government furnished property or bailment contract for use by a contractor, provided the Federal, State, or local Government has retained liability responsibilities.

(7) Civil aircraft transporting critically ill or injured individuals or transplant organs to or from an Air Force installation.

(8) Historic aircraft being delivered for Air Force museum exhibits under the provisions of AFI 84-103, Museum System. 2

2 See footnote 1 to § 855.6.

§ 855.7 - Conditions for use of Air Force airfields.

The Air Force authorizes use of its airfields for a specific purpose by a named individual or company. The authorization cannot be transferred to a second or third party and does not extend to use for other purposes. An approved landing permit does not obligate the Air Force to provide supplies, equipment, or facilities other than the landing, taxiing, and parking areas. The aircraft crew and passengers are only authorized activities at the installation directly related to the purpose for which use is granted. All users are expected to submit their application (DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402) at least 30 days before intended use and, except for use as a weather alternate, CRAF alternate, or emergency landing site, must contact the appropriate installation commander or a designated representative for final landing approval at least 24 hours before arrival. Failure to comply with either time limit may result in denied landing rights.

§ 855.8 - Application procedures.

To allow time for processing, the application (DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402) and a self-addressed, stamped envelope should be submitted at least 30 days before the date of the first intended landing. The verification required for each purpose of use must be included with the application. The name of the user must be the same on all forms. Original, hand scribed signatures, not facsimile elements, are required on all forms. Landing Permit Application Instructions are at attachment 3 to this part. The user is responsible for reviewing this part and accurately completing the forms before submitting them to the approving authority.

§ 855.9 - Permit renewal.

When a landing permit expires, DD Forms 2401 and 2400 must be resubmitted for continued use of Air Force airfields.

Note:

Corporations must resubmit the DD Form 2402 every five years.

§ 855.10 - Purpose of use.

The purposes of use normally associated with civil aircraft operations at Air Force airfields are listed in Table 1. Requests for use for purposes other than those listed will be considered and may be approved if warranted by unique circumstances. A separate DD Form 2401 is required for each purpose of use. (Users can have multiple DD Forms 2401 that are covered by a single DD Form 2400 and DD Form 2402.)

§ 855.11 - Insurance requirements.

Applicants must provide proof of third-party liability insurance on a DD Form 2400, with the amounts stated in US dollars. The policy number, effective date, and expiration date are required. The statement “until canceled” may be used in lieu of a specific expiration date. The geographic coverage must include the area where the Air Force airfield of proposed use is located. If several aircraft or aircraft types are included under the same policy, a statement such as “all aircraft owned,” “all aircraft owned and or operated,” “all non-owned aircraft,” or “all aircraft operated,” may be used in lieu of aircraft registration numbers. To meet the insurance requirements, either split limit coverage for bodily injury (individuals outside the aircraft), property damage, and passengers, or a single limit coverage is required. The coverage will be at the expense of the user with an insurance company acceptable to the Air Force. Coverage must be current during the period the Air Force airfield will be used. The liability required is computed on the basis of aircraft maximum gross takeoff weight (MGTOW) and passenger or cargo configuration. Minimum coverage will not be less than the amount indicated in Table 2 to this part.

(a) Any insurance presented as a single limit of liability or a combination of primary and excess coverage will be an amount equal to or greater than the each accident minimums indicated in Table 2 to this part for bodily injury (individuals outside the aircraft), property damage, and passengers.

(b) The policy will specifically provide that:

(1) The insurer waives any right of subrogation it may have against the US by reason of any payment made under the policy for injury, death, or property damage that might arise, out of or in connection with the insured's use of any Air Force airfield.

(2) The insurance afforded by the policy applies to the liability assumed by the insured under DD Form 2402.

(3) If the insurer or the insured cancels or reduces the amount of insurance afforded under the listed policy before the expiration date indicated on DD Form 2400, the insurer will send written notice of policy cancellation or coverage reduction to the Air Force approving authority at least 30 days before the effective date of the cancellation or reduction. The policy must state that any cancellation or reduction will not be effective until at least 30 days after such notice is sent.

§ 855.12 - Processing a permit application.

Upon receipt of an application (DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402) for use of an Air Force airfield, the decision authority:

(a) Determines the availability of the airfield and its capability to accommodate the purpose of use requested.

(b) Determines the validity of the request and ensures all entries on DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402 are in conformance with this part.

(c) Approves DD Form 2401 (with conditions or limitations noted) by completing all items in Section II—For Use by Approving Authority as follows:

(1) Period of Use (Block 7): The “From” date will be either the first day of approved use or the first day of insurance coverage. The “From” date cannot precede the first day of insurance coverage shown on the DD Form 2400. The “Thru” date is determined by the insurance expiration date and or the purpose of use. For example, the period of use for participants in an Air Force open house will be determined by both insurance coverage and open house dates. The permit would be issued only for the duration of the open house but must not precede or exceed the dates of insurance coverage. Many insurance policies terminate at noon on the expiration date. Therefore, if the insurance expiration is used to determine the permit expiration date, the landing permit will expire one day before the insurance expiration date shown on the DD Form 2400. If the insurance expiration date either exceeds 2 years or is indefinite (for example, “until canceled”), the landing permit will expire 2 years from the issue date or first day of coverage.

(2) Frequency of Use (Block 8) is normally “as required” but may be more specific, such as “one time.”

(3) Identification Number (Block 9): Installation commanders or a designated representative assign a permit number comprised of the last three letters of the installation's International Civil Aviation Organization identifier code, the last two digits of the calendar year, a number sequentially assigned, and the letter suffix that indicates the purpose of use (Table 1); for example, ADW 95-01C. MAJCOMs, FOAs, DRUs, and USDAOs use a three position organization abbreviation; such as AMC 95-02K.

(4) DD Form 2400 (Dated and Filed) (Block 11a): This block should contain the date from block 1 (Date Issued) on the DD Form 2400 and the identification of the unit or base where the form was approved; i.e., 30 March 1995, HQ USAF/XOOBC.

(5) DD Form 2402 (Dated and Filed) (Block 11b): This block should contain the date from block 4 (Date Signed) on the DD Form 2402 and the identification of the unit or base where the form was approved; i.e., 30 March 1995, HQ USAF/XOOBC.

(6) SA-ALC/SFR, 1014 Andrews Road, Building 1621, Kelly AFB TX 78241-5603 publishes the list of companies authorized to purchase Air Force fuel on credit. Block 12 should be marked “yes” only if the permit holder's name appears on the SA-ALC list.

(7) Landing Fees, Block 13, should be marked as indicated in Table 1 to this part.

(8) Permit Amendments: New entries or revisions to an approved DD Form 2401 may be made only by or with the consent of the approving authority.

(d) Provides the applicant with written disapproval if:

(1) Use will interfere with operations, security, or safety.

(2) Adequate civil facilities are collocated.

(3) Purpose of use is not official Government business and adequate civil facilities are available in the proximity of the requested Air Force airfield.

(4) Use will constitute competition with civil airports or air carriers.

(5) Applicant has not fully complied with this part.

(e) Distributes the approved DD Form 2401 before the first intended landing, when possible, as follows:

(1) Retains original.

(2) Returns two copies to the user.

(3) Provides a copy to HQ USAF/XOOBC.

Note:

HQ USAF/XOOBC will provide a computer report of current landing permits to the MAJCOMs, FOAs, DRUs, and installations.

§ 855.13 - Civil fly-ins.

(a) Civil aircraft operators may be invited to a specified Air Force airfield for:

(1) A base open house to perform or provide a static display.

(2) A flying safety seminar.

(b) Civil fly-in procedures:

(1) The installation commander or a designated representative:

(i) Requests approval from the MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU with an information copy to HQ USAF/XOOBC/XOOO and SAF/PAC.

(ii) Ensures that DD Form 2402 is completed by each user.

Note:

DD Forms 2400 and 2401 are not required for fly-in participants if flying activity consists of a single landing and takeoff with no spectators other than flightline or other personnel required to support the aircraft operations.

(2) The MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU ensures HQ USAF/XOOBC/XOOO and SAF/PAC are advised of the approval or disapproval for the fly-in.

(3) Aerial performance by civil aircraft at an Air Force open house requires MAJCOM or FOA approval and an approved landing permit as specified in AFI 35-201, Community Relations 3 . Regardless of the aircraft's historic military significance, DD Forms 2400, 2401, and 2402 must be submitted and approved before the performance. The permit can be approved at MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, or installation level. Use will be authorized only for the period of the event. Fly-in procedures do not apply to aircraft transporting passengers (revenue or non-revenue) for the purpose of attending the open house or demonstration flights associated with marketing a product.

3 See footnote 1 to § 855.6.

§ 855.14 - Unauthorized landings.

(a) Unauthorized landing procedures. The installation commander or a designated representative will identify an unauthorized landing as either an emergency landing, an inadvertent landing, or an intentional landing. An unauthorized landing may be designated as inadvertent or intentional whether or not the operator has knowledge of the provisions of this part, and whether or not the operator filed a flight plan identifying the installation as a destination. Aircraft must depart the installation as soon as practical. On all unauthorized landings, the installation commander or a designated representative:

(1) Informs the operator of subpart B procedures and the requirement for notifying the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) as specified in section 6 of the FAA Airman's Information Manual.

(2) Notifies the Federal Aviation Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) by telephone or telefax, followed by written notification using FAA Form 8020-9, 8020-11, or 8020-17, as appropriate. A copy of the written notification must be provided to HQ USAF/XOOBC.

(3) Ensures the operator completes a DD Form 2402, and collects applicable charges. (In some instances, it may be necessary to arrange to bill the user for the appropriate charges.) DD Form 2402 need not be completed for commercial carriers if it is known that the form is already on file at HQ USAF/XOOBC.

(4) In a foreign country, notifies the local US Defense Attache Office (USDAO) by telephone or telefax and, where applicable, the appropriate USDAO in the country of aircraft registry, followed by written notification with an information copy to HQ USAF/XOOBC and the civil aviation authority of the country or countries concerned.

(b) Emergency landings. Any aircraft operator who experiences an inflight emergency may land at any Air Force airfield without prior authorization (approved DD Form 2401 and 24 hours prior notice). An inflight emergency is defined as a situation that makes continued flight hazardous.

(1) The Air Force will use any method or means to clear an aircraft or wreckage from the runway to preclude interference with essential military operations after coordinating with the FSDO and National Transportation Safety Board. Removal efforts will minimize damage to the aircraft or wreckage; however, military or other operational factors may be overriding.

(2) An operator making an emergency landing:

(i) Is not charged a landing fee.

(ii) Pays all costs for labor, material, parts, use of equipment and tools, and so forth, to include, but not limited to:

(A) Spreading foam on the runway.

(B) Damage to runway, lighting, and navigation aids.

(C) Rescue, crash, and fire control services.

(D) Movement and storage of aircraft.

(E) Performance of minor maintenance.

(F) Fuel or oil (AFM 67-1, vol 1, part three, chapter 1, Air Force Stock Fund and DPSC Assigned Item Procedures 4 ).

4 See footnote 1 to § 855.6.

(c) Inadvertent unauthorized landings. (1) The installation commander or a designated representative may determine a landing to be inadvertent if the aircraft operator:

(i) Landed due to flight disorientation.

(ii) Mistook the Air Force airfield for a civil airport.

(2) Normal landing fees must be charged and an unauthorized landing fee may be assessed to compensate the Government for the added time, effort, and risk involved in the inadvertent landing. Only the unauthorized landing fee may be waived by the installation commander or a designated representative if, after interviewing the pilot-in-command and appropriate Government personnel, it is determined that flying safety was not significantly impaired. The pilot-in-command may appeal the imposition of an unauthorized landing fee for an inadvertent landing to the MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU whose decision will be final. A subsequent inadvertent landing will be processed as an intentional unauthorized landing.

(d) Intentional unauthorized landings. (1) The installation commander may categorize an unauthorized landing as intentional when there is unequivocal evidence that the pilot deliberately:

(i) Landed without an approved DD Form 2401 on board the aircraft.

(ii) Landed for a purpose not approved on the DD Form 2401.

(iii) Operated an aircraft not of a model or registration number on the approved DD Form 2401.

(iv) Did not request or obtain the required final approval from the installation commander or a designated representative at least 24 hours before aircraft arrival.

(v) Did not obtain landing clearance from the air traffic control tower.

(vi) Landed with an expired DD Form 2401.

(vii) Obtained landing authorization through fraudulent methods, or

(viii) Landed after having been denied a request to land from any Air Force authority, including the control tower.

(2) Normal landing fees and an unauthorized landing fee must be charged. Intentional unauthorized landings increase reporting, processing, and staffing costs; therefore, the unauthorized landing fee for paragraph (d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(vi) of this section will be increased by 100 percent. The unauthorized landing fee will be increased 200 percent for paragraph (d)(1)(vii) and (d)(1)(viii) of this section.

(3) Intentional unauthorized landings may be prosecuted as a criminal trespass, especially if a debarment letter has been issued. Repeated intentional unauthorized landings prejudice the user's FAA operating authority and jeopardize future use of Air Force airfields.

§ 855.15 - Detaining an aircraft.

(a) An installation commander in the United States, its territories, or its possessions may choose to detain an aircraft for an intentional unauthorized landing until:

(1) The unauthorized landing has been reported to the FAA, HQ USAF/XOOBC, and the appropriate US Attorney.

(2) All applicable charges have been paid.

(b) If the installation commander wishes to release the aircraft before the investigation is completed, he or she must obtain bond, promissory note, or other security for payment of the highest charge that may be assessed.

(c) The pilot and passengers will not be detained longer than is necessary for identification, although they may be permitted to remain in a lounge or other waiting area on the base at their request for such period as the installation commander may determine (normally not to exceed close of business hours at the home office of the entity owning the aircraft, if the operator does not own the aircraft). No person, solely due to an intentional unauthorized landing, will be detained involuntarily after identification is complete without coordination from the appropriate US Attorney, the MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU, and HQ USAF/XOOBC.

§ 855.16 - Parking and storage.

The time that an aircraft spends on an installation is at the discretion of the installation commander or a designated representative but should be linked to the purpose of use authorized. Parking and storage may be permitted on a nonexclusive, temporary, or intermittent basis, when compatible with military requirements. At those locations where there are Air Force aero clubs, parking and storage privileges may be permitted in the area designated for aero club use without regard for the purpose of use authorized, if consistent with aero club policies. Any such permission may be revoked upon notice, based on military needs and the installation commander's discretion.

§ 855.17 - Fees for landing, parking, and storage.

(a) Landing, parking, and storage fees (Tables 3 and 4 to this part) are determined by aircraft maximum gross takeoff weight (MGTOW). All fees are normally due and collectible at the time of use of the Air Force airfield. DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher, is used to deposit the fees with the base accounting and finance officer. In some instances, it may be necessary to bill the user for charges incurred.

(b) Landing fees are not charged when the aircraft is operating in support of official Government business or for any purpose, the cost of which is subject to reimbursement by the US Government. Parking and Storage Fees (Table 4 to this part) are charged if an aircraft must remain beyond the period necessary to conduct official Government business and for all non-official Government business operations.

§ 855.18 - Aviation fuel and oil purchases.

When a user qualifies under the provisions of AFM 67-1, vol. 1, part three, chapter 1, Air Force Stock Fund and DPSC Assigned Item Procedures, 5 purchase of Air Force fuel and oil may be made on a cash or credit basis. An application for credit authority can be filed by submitting an Authorized Credit Letter to SA-ALC/SFRL, 1014 Andrews Road, Building 1621, Kelly AFB TX 78241-5603.

5 See footnote 1 to § 855.6.

§ 855.19 - Supply and service charges.

Supplies and services furnished to a user will be charged for as prescribed in AFM 67-1, volume 1, part one, chapter 10, section N, Basic Air Force Supply Procedures, and AFR 177-102, paragraph 28.24, Commercial Transactions at Base Level. 6 A personal check with appropriate identification, cashier's check, money order, or cash are acceptable means of payment. Charges for handling foreign military sales cargo are prescribed in AFR 170-3, Financial Management and Accounting for Security Assistance and International Programs. 7

6 See footnote 1 to § 855.6.

7 See footnote 1 to § 855.6.